Nursing Elites

1. A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Administer 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
• B. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
• C. Arrange a consultation with the dietitian.
• D. Educate about the side effects of diuretics.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypokalemia, defined as a serum potassium level below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, can lead to changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, potentially causing life-threatening dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or ventricular ectopy. This monitoring is crucial for assessing the impact of potassium replacement therapy on the cardiac rhythm and ensuring the safety of the client. While administering potassium chloride is important for correcting the hypokalemia, it should occur after cardiac monitoring is in place. Consulting with a dietitian and educating about diuretic side effects are relevant aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation where cardiac monitoring takes precedence for timely intervention.

2. To evaluate the positive effect of furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg/day in a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD), what is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Obtain daily weights of the client.
• B. Auscultate heart and breath sounds.
• C. Palpate the client’s abdomen.
• D. Assess the client’s diet history.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic used to manage fluid overload and hypertension in clients with CKD. Monitoring daily weights is crucial as weight changes reflect fluid status. Each kilogram of weight change approximately corresponds to 1 liter of fluid retention or loss, making it essential for evaluating the medication's effectiveness. Auscultating heart and breath sounds is more relevant for heart failure cases with fluid retention, not specifically for assessing the effect of furosemide in CKD. Palpating the abdomen is not a direct indicator of furosemide's effectiveness; instead, assessing for edema would be appropriate. While assessing the client's diet history is important to monitor electrolyte balance due to potassium loss with furosemide, it does not directly evaluate the medication's efficacy.

3. What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Escherichia coli infection
• B. Staphylococcus aureus infection
• C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection
• D. Klebsiella pneumoniae infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs). It is responsible for the majority of UTIs, especially in women. E. coli is a normal inhabitant of the bowel and can enter the urinary tract through the urethra, leading to infection. Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are less common causes of UTIs compared to E. coli. Staphylococcus aureus typically causes skin and soft tissue infections, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is known for causing pneumonia and other respiratory infections.

4. A pregnant client tells the nurse, “I am experiencing a burning pain when I urinate.” How should the nurse respond?

• A. This means labor will start soon. Prepare to go to the hospital.
• B. You probably have a urinary tract infection. Drink more cranberry juice.
• C. Make an appointment with your provider to have your infection treated.
• D. Your pelvic wall is weakening. Pelvic muscle exercises should help.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pregnant clients with a urinary tract infection require prompt and aggressive treatment because cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy. The nurse should encourage the client to make an appointment and have the infection treated. Burning pain when urinating does not indicate the start of labor or weakening of pelvic muscles. Choice A is incorrect because burning pain during urination does not signify the start of labor. Choice B is incorrect because while cranberry juice may help prevent urinary tract infections, it is not a treatment. Choice D is incorrect because burning pain when urinating is not indicative of weakening pelvic muscles.

5. A client is recovering from a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy and reports increased pain from 3 to 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the client on the operative side.
• B. Administer the prescribed opioid analgesic.
• C. Assess the pulse rate and blood pressure.
• D. Examine the color of the client’s urine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abrupt increase in pain following a percutaneous kidney biopsy may indicate internal hemorrhage. Assessing the client's pulse rate and blood pressure is crucial as changes in vital signs can be indicative of hemorrhage. This assessment is essential in determining the client's hemodynamic status and the need for immediate intervention. Repositioning the client, administering pain medication, or checking urine color are not the priority actions in this situation and may delay necessary interventions for potential hemorrhage.

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