HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client has undergone insertion of a permanent pacemaker. When developing a discharge teaching plan, the nurse writes a goal of, 'The client will verbalize symptoms of pacemaker failure.' Which symptoms are most important to teach the client?
- A. Facial flushing.
- B. Fever.
- C. Pounding headache.
- D. Feelings of dizziness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Feelings of dizziness.' Feelings of dizziness may occur as a result of a decreased heart rate, leading to decreased cardiac output, which can be an indication of pacemaker failure. Teaching the client to recognize symptoms of decreased cardiac output, like dizziness, is crucial for early detection of pacemaker malfunction. Choices A, B, and C are less specific to pacemaker failure and are not commonly associated with this condition. Facial flushing, fever, and pounding headache are not typical signs of pacemaker failure and are not directly related to cardiac output, making them less relevant for teaching the client about pacemaker failure.
2. The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature using another method.
- B. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.
3. A nurse is preparing for intershift report when a nurse’s aide pulls an emergency call light in a client’s room. Upon answering the light, the nurse finds a client who returned from surgery earlier in the day experiencing tachycardia and tachypnea. The client’s blood pressure is 88/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Calling the physician
- B. Checking the hourly urine output
- C. Checking the IV site for infiltration
- D. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of shock, indicated by tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position is the initial action to improve venous return, cardiac output, and subsequently increase blood pressure. This position helps redistribute blood flow to vital organs. Calling the physician should follow once immediate intervention has been initiated. Checking the hourly urine output and IV site are important assessments but are secondary to addressing the client's hemodynamic instability and potential for shock.
4. When a young client being taught to use an inhaler for asthma symptoms states the intention to use the inhaler but plans to continue smoking cigarettes, what is the best initial action by the nurse?
- A. Inform the healthcare provider of the client's statement.
- B. Explain that denial of illness can interfere with the treatment regimen.
- C. Revise the plan of care based on the client's plans to continue smoking.
- D. Review factors surrounding the client's beliefs about smoking cessation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best initial action by the nurse when a client expresses plans to use an inhaler for asthma symptoms but continue smoking cigarettes is to address denial. By explaining that denial of illness can interfere with the treatment regimen, the nurse educates the client about the impact of smoking on asthma treatment. This approach helps the client understand the importance of smoking cessation in managing asthma symptoms. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial action in this scenario. Revising the plan of care (Choice C) should be considered after addressing the client's denial and educating them. Reviewing factors surrounding the client's beliefs about smoking cessation (Choice D) is relevant but not the best initial action when denial is identified.
5. A client with acute kidney injury has a blood pressure of 76/55 mm Hg. The health care provider ordered 1000 mL of normal saline to be infused over 1 hour to maintain perfusion. The client is starting to develop shortness of breath. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Calculate the mean arterial pressure (MAP).
- B. Ask for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter.
- C. Take the client’s pulse.
- D. Slow down the normal saline infusion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client may be developing fluid overload and respiratory distress due to the rapid normal saline infusion. The priority action is to slow down the infusion to prevent worsening respiratory distress and potential fluid overload. While calculating the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is important to assess perfusion, addressing the immediate respiratory distress takes precedence. Inserting a pulmonary artery catheter would provide detailed hemodynamic information but is not the initial step in managing acute respiratory distress. Monitoring vital signs, including the client's pulse, is crucial after adjusting the intravenous infusion to ensure a safe response to the intervention.
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