Nursing Elites

1. A client at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?

• A. 4+ reflexes
• B. Urinary output of 50 ml per hour
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16
• D. A decreased body temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16 indicates that magnesium sulfate is effectively reducing central nervous system irritability, a desired therapeutic effect. This decrease in respiratory rate signifies that the drug has reached a therapeutic level to control symptoms of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 4+ reflexes, urinary output, and body temperature are not direct indicators of achieving a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for controlling PIH symptoms.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

3. A 6-month-old child who had a cleft-lip repair has elbow restraints in place. What nursing intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Obtain the healthcare provider’s advice as to when the restraints should be removed.
• B. Remove restraints one at a time to provide range of motion exercises.
• C. Record observation of the restraints q2h and ensure that they are in place at all times.
• D. Remove restraints q4h for 30 minutes and place gloves on the child’s hands.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Removing restraints one at a time for range of motion exercises prevents muscle stiffness and allows assessment of the skin.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?

• A. Gestational diabetes.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Urinary tract infection.
• D. Swelling in lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.

5. A father watching the admission of his newborn to the nursery notices that eye ointment is placed in the infant's eyes. He asks what is the purpose of the ointment. The nurse would be correct in stating that the purpose of the ointment is:

• A. Prevent eye infection.
• B. Dilate the pupil so the red reflex can be visualized.
• C. Clear the infant's vision.
• D. Prevent herpes infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent eye infection. Eye ointment, usually containing erythromycin, is applied to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis, which can be caused by bacteria present in the birth canal. It is not used to dilate the pupil, clear the infant's vision, or prevent herpes infection.

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