Nursing Elites

1. A client at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?

• A. 4+ reflexes
• B. Urinary output of 50 ml per hour
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16
• D. A decreased body temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16 indicates that magnesium sulfate is effectively reducing central nervous system irritability, a desired therapeutic effect. This decrease in respiratory rate signifies that the drug has reached a therapeutic level to control symptoms of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 4+ reflexes, urinary output, and body temperature are not direct indicators of achieving a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for controlling PIH symptoms.

2. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is complaining of severe pain and a feeling of pressure in her perineum. Her fundus is firm, and she has a moderate lochial flow. On inspection, the nurse finds that a perineal hematoma is beginning to form. Which assessment finding should the nurse obtain first?

• A. Urinary output and fluid intake.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Abdominal contour and bowel sounds.
• D. Heart rate and blood pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a postpartum client with a perineal hematoma, assessing heart rate and blood pressure is crucial as it can help determine the client's circulatory status. A perineal hematoma has the potential to cause significant blood loss leading to hypovolemia. Monitoring vital signs like heart rate and blood pressure can provide immediate information on the client's hemodynamic stability and guide further interventions if needed.

3. A client whose labor is being augmented with an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion requests an epidural for pain control. Findings of the last vaginal exam, performed 1 hour ago, were 3 cm cervical dilation, 60% effacement, and a -2 station. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Decrease the oxytocin infusion rate
• B. Determine current cervical dilation
• C. Request placement of the epidural
• D. Give a bolus of intravenous fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client receiving an oxytocin infusion who requests an epidural, it is crucial to give a bolus of intravenous fluids first. This action helps prevent hypotension, a common side effect of epidural anesthesia, before the placement of the epidural. Maintaining adequate hydration is essential to support maternal blood pressure stability during the procedure.

4. During the newborn admission assessment, the nurse palpates the newborn's scrotum and does not feel the testicles. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next to verify the absence of testes?

• A. Observe the urethral opening on the surface of the penis when the newborn voids.
• B. Perform transillumination of the scrotal sac to visualize shadows of the testes.
• C. Use a fingertip to palpate the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis.
• D. Measure the size of the scrotal sac for length and width.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the testes are not palpated in the scrotum, the next step is to check the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis. This technique allows the nurse to determine if the testes are located within the inguinal canal rather than the scrotum. It is essential to assess for the presence of testes in the inguinal canal to ensure proper diagnosis and management of any potential issues related to testicular positioning.

5. The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
• C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
• D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client experiences a return to red bleeding after transitioning to pink and white, it may indicate possible complications like hemorrhage or retained placental fragments. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and promptly notify the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management of these potentially serious postpartum complications. Choice B is incorrect as assuming a knee-chest position is not the appropriate action for red bleeding postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the uterus without professional assessment can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect because red bleeding after transitioning is not normal and should be evaluated promptly.

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