HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. A client at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?
- A. 4+ reflexes
- B. Urinary output of 50 ml per hour
- C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16
- D. A decreased body temperature
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16 indicates that magnesium sulfate is effectively reducing central nervous system irritability, a desired therapeutic effect. This decrease in respiratory rate signifies that the drug has reached a therapeutic level to control symptoms of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 4+ reflexes, urinary output, and body temperature are not direct indicators of achieving a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for controlling PIH symptoms.
2. A nurse contacts the healthcare provider after reviewing a client’s laboratory results and noting a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 35 mg/dL and a creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL. For which action should the nurse recommend a prescription?
- A. Intravenous fluids
- B. Hemodialysis
- C. Fluid restriction
- D. Urine culture and sensitivity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The normal range for BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dL, and for creatinine, it is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL in males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL in females. Creatinine is a more specific marker for kidney function compared to BUN. In this case, the client's creatinine level is within the normal range, indicating a non-renal cause for the elevated BUN. Dehydration is a common cause of increased BUN, so the appropriate action would be to recommend intravenous fluids to address the dehydration. Fluid restriction is not indicated as the client needs hydration. Hemodialysis is not appropriate for dehydration and is typically reserved for renal failure. The laboratory results do not suggest an infection, making a urine culture and sensitivity unnecessary in this scenario.
3. A child diagnosed with Kawasaki disease is brought to the clinic. The mother reports that her child is irritable, refuses to eat, and has skin peeling on both hands and feet. Which intervention should the nurse instruct the mother to implement first?
- A. Place the child in a quiet environment
- B. Make a list of foods that the child likes
- C. Encourage the parents to rest when possible
- D. Apply lotion to hands and feet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a child with Kawasaki disease, presenting with irritability and skin peeling, is to place the child in a quiet environment. This helps reduce environmental stimuli, calming the child and aiding in managing the symptoms associated with the disease. Choice B is incorrect as addressing food preferences is not the priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as the focus should be on the child's immediate needs. Choice D is incorrect as applying lotion is not the first-line intervention for Kawasaki disease symptoms.
4. A client with a nasogastric tube in place following gastric surgery reports nausea. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 ml of normal saline.
- B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
- C. Assess the NG tube for patency and reposition if necessary.
- D. Provide sips of water and reassess the client's symptoms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the NG tube for patency and repositioning it if necessary is the most appropriate action to relieve the client's nausea. Nausea in a client with a nasogastric tube can be due to the tube's malposition or blockage. Irrigating the NG tube with normal saline (Choice A) without assessing for patency or repositioning may worsen the situation. Administering an antiemetic (Choice B) can help manage symptoms but does not address the potential issue with the NG tube. Providing sips of water and reassessing symptoms (Choice D) may be contraindicated if there is a problem with the NG tube and could exacerbate the nausea.
5. A client at 28 weeks gestation calls the antepartum clinic and reports experiencing a small amount of bright red vaginal bleeding without uterine contractions or abdominal pain. What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide?
- A. Come to the clinic today for an ultrasound.
- B. Go immediately to the emergency room.
- C. Lie on your left side for about one hour and see if the bleeding stops.
- D. Bring a urine specimen to the lab tomorrow to determine if you have a urinary tract infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bright red vaginal bleeding without pain could indicate placental issues such as previa. An ultrasound is necessary to evaluate the cause. It is important to rule out potential serious conditions like placental previa, which can lead to further complications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, prompt evaluation through an ultrasound at the clinic is essential for appropriate management and ensuring the well-being of the client and her baby.