Nursing Elites

1. A child with Graves' disease who is taking propranolol (Inderal) is seen in the clinic. The nurse should monitor the child for which therapeutic response?

• A. Increased weight gain
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Reduced headaches
• D. Diminished fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a child with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol (Inderal), the nurse should monitor for a decreased heart rate as a therapeutic response. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts to slow down the heart rate, which is beneficial in managing the symptoms of Graves' disease, such as tachycardia and other cardiovascular manifestations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because propranolol is not typically associated with increased weight gain, reduced headaches, or diminished fatigue as its primary therapeutic effect in this context.

2. The parents of a 9-month-old infant are being educated about preventing iron deficiency anemia. Which statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will start giving my baby whole cow’s milk at 12 months
• B. I will give my baby iron-fortified cereal
• C. I will give my baby fruit juice between meals
• D. I will give my baby water with meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will give my baby iron-fortified cereal.' Iron-fortified cereal is an excellent source of iron for infants, aiding in the prevention of iron deficiency anemia. Choice A is incorrect as whole cow’s milk should not be introduced until the child is at least 12 months old to prevent iron deficiency. Choice C is incorrect because giving fruit juice between meals can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D is incorrect as giving water with meals can decrease nutrient intake. Therefore, the best choice to prevent iron deficiency anemia in a 9-month-old infant is to give them iron-fortified cereal.

3. A 2-year-old is admitted to the hospital with possible encephalitis, and a lumbar puncture is scheduled. Which information should the nurse provide this child concerning the procedure?

• A. Describe the side-lying, knees-to-chest position that must be assumed during the procedure.
• B. Explain that fluids cannot be taken for 8 hours before the procedure and for 4 hours after the procedure.
• C. Reassure the child that there will be no restrictions on activity after the procedure is completed.
• D. Tell the child to expect loud clicking noises during the procedure that may be slightly annoying.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Children, especially young ones, benefit from knowing what position they will be in during a procedure as it helps them understand and feel more in control. Describing the side-lying, knees-to-chest position can reduce anxiety and promote cooperation during the lumbar puncture. Choice B is incorrect because the question is about preparing the child for the procedure, not about pre-procedure fasting requirements. Choice C is incorrect because there may be restrictions on activity after the procedure. Choice D is incorrect because mentioning loud clicking noises may increase the child's anxiety and fear.

4. What age-appropriate play activity should the practical nurse suggest to the parents of a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation?

• A. Play peek-a-boo.
• B. Play pat-a-cake.
• C. Imitate animal sounds.
• D. Show how to clap hands.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should suggest playing peek-a-boo to the parents of a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation. Peek-a-boo is a suitable game for this age group as it helps develop visual tracking skills and the concept of object permanence. By covering and uncovering their face or a toy, the infant learns that things still exist even when they cannot be seen, promoting cognitive development and visual engagement.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dark-colored urine
• B. Mild periorbital edema
• C. Blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.

Similar Questions