a 3 year old child is brought to the clinic by the parents who are concerned that the child is not yet potty trained what is the nurses best response
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pediatric HESI

1. A 3-year-old child is brought to the clinic by the parents who are concerned that the child is not yet potty trained. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is important to acknowledge that children develop at different rates. By offering support and discussing strategies for potty training, the nurse can provide the necessary guidance without causing unnecessary concern or pressure on the parents. Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses the parents' concerns. Choice C is incorrect because jumping to the conclusion of developmental delays without further assessment or discussion can cause undue anxiety. Choice D is incorrect because forcing a child to use the potty can lead to resistance and negative associations with potty training.

2. A 4-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections is brought to the clinic by the parents who are concerned about the child’s hearing. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to inspect the child's ears for drainage. This immediate assessment can provide valuable information about the presence of infection or fluid accumulation, which can directly impact the child's hearing. By identifying any signs of drainage, the nurse can promptly address any current issues affecting the child's ear health and hearing abilities. Performing a hearing test (Choice A) may be necessary but should follow the initial assessment of the ears. Referring the child to an audiologist (Choice C) can be considered later based on the findings. Asking about speech development (Choice D) is important but not the immediate priority compared to assessing for current ear issues.

3. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for a 4-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, fluid volume excess is a priority nursing diagnosis due to the risk of edema and related complications. This patient may experience significant fluid retention, leading to edema, hypertension, and potential respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing fluid volume excess are crucial in preventing further complications and supporting the child's health during nephrotic syndrome. The other options are not the priority in this case. Impaired urinary elimination is not typically a primary concern in nephrotic syndrome. While infection is a risk due to compromised immunity, fluid volume excess poses a more immediate threat to the child's health. Risk for impaired skin integrity may be a concern secondary to edema, but addressing fluid volume excess takes precedence.

4. The caregiver is providing discharge instructions to the parents of a 6-month-old infant who was hospitalized for bronchiolitis. Which statement by the parents indicates a correct understanding of the instructions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Keeping the infant away from people with colds is crucial to prevent the spread of respiratory infections, especially for infants recently hospitalized with bronchiolitis. This precaution helps protect the baby from further illnesses and promotes recovery. The other choices are incorrect because it is important to complete the prescribed medication course even if the baby seems better to ensure the infection is fully treated (Choice B). Solid foods are usually introduced around six months of age, so avoiding them entirely may not be necessary (Choice C). Placing the baby to sleep on their back is a safe sleep practice to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) but may not directly help with breathing in the context of bronchiolitis (Choice D).

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

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