HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. A 7-year-old child with a history of asthma presents to the clinic with shortness of breath and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child’s peak flow reading is in the red zone. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator
- B. Reassess the peak flow reading
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Provide oxygen therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a child with asthma presents with shortness of breath and wheezing, and the peak flow reading is in the red zone, indicating severe airflow limitation, the priority intervention is to administer a bronchodilator. Bronchodilators help dilate the airways quickly, improving airflow and assisting with breathing. Reassessing the peak flow reading is important but not the first action to take in a severe asthma exacerbation. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating immediate treatment with a bronchodilator. Providing oxygen therapy may be needed in some cases, but addressing the airway constriction with a bronchodilator should come first to improve ventilation.
2. The infant scheduled for reduction of intussusception passes a soft-formed brown stool the day before the scheduled procedure. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the parents that the infant needs to be NPO.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of brown stool.
- C. Obtain a stool specimen for laboratory analysis.
- D. Ask the parents about recent changes in the infant's diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial in this situation because the passage of a brown stool may indicate the resolution of intussusception. It is important to keep the healthcare provider informed about any changes in the infant's condition to ensure appropriate care and management. Instructing the parents that the infant needs to be NPO (nothing by mouth) is not necessary based on the passage of brown stool. Obtaining a stool specimen for laboratory analysis is not indicated in this scenario since the brown stool is likely a positive sign. Asking about recent changes in the infant's diet is not the priority at this moment as notifying the healthcare provider takes precedence.
3. The parents of a 4-year-old child who has just been diagnosed with celiac disease are being educated by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the parents indicates a correct understanding of the condition?
- A. We can give our child small amounts of gluten occasionally
- B. We need to avoid giving our child foods containing wheat, barley, and rye
- C. We should limit our child’s intake of dairy products
- D. Our child will need to take gluten-free supplements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because for individuals with celiac disease, a strict gluten-free diet is essential for managing the condition. Foods containing wheat, barley, and rye must be completely avoided to prevent adverse reactions and damage to the intestines. This dietary restriction is crucial to ensure the child's health and well-being in managing celiac disease effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because giving small amounts of gluten occasionally, limiting dairy products, or taking gluten-free supplements are not sufficient measures to manage celiac disease. Complete avoidance of gluten-containing foods is necessary to prevent complications.
4. A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 4.2 mL
- B. 5 mL
- C. 3.6 mL
- D. 4 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.
5. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
- B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
- C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
- D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.
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