a 40 year old man presents with abdominal pain diarrhea and weight loss he has a history of crohns disease laboratory tests reveal low hemoglobin and
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Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A 40-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. He has a history of Crohn's disease. Laboratory tests reveal low hemoglobin and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, along with the history of Crohn's disease, and the laboratory findings of low hemoglobin and elevated ESR, strongly suggest a Crohn's disease flare. These clinical manifestations are classic features of a flare-up in a patient with a known history of Crohn's disease.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regular monitoring of blood pressure is crucial for individuals with hypertension to assess the effectiveness of the prescribed medication and to ensure blood pressure is within the target range. This helps in managing hypertension and preventing complications associated with high blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while taking the medication in the morning may be recommended for some drugs, it is not the key instruction for hydrochlorothiazide. Avoiding foods high in potassium and decreasing high-sodium foods are important dietary considerations for certain conditions, but they are not the immediate focus when starting hydrochlorothiazide.

3. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) is to use it twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that is not intended for acute asthma attacks or as-needed use for wheezing. Choice A is incorrect because salmeterol is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as salmeterol is not meant to replace the albuterol inhaler but rather used for long-term control. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used as needed; it is a maintenance medication for asthma.

4. A 70-year-old woman presents with fatigue, anorexia, and weight loss. She has noticed darkening of her skin, particularly in sun-exposed areas. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of symptoms such as fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, hyperpigmentation of the skin, along with hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels, points towards Addison's disease. This condition is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to a deficiency in cortisol and aldosterone production.

5. A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is receiving teaching on foot care. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correctly trimming toenails straight across is crucial in preventing ingrown toenails and potential infections in individuals with diabetes. Ingrown toenails can lead to complications, so it is essential for diabetic clients to practice proper nail care to avoid these issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Walking barefoot can increase the risk of foot injuries, soaking feet in hot water can cause burns or skin damage, and using a heating pad can lead to burns or injuries due to decreased sensation in the feet, which is common in diabetes.

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