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Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain is relieved with defecation. She denies any weight loss, blood in her stools, or nocturnal symptoms. Physical examination and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Inflammatory bowel disease
- B. Irritable bowel syndrome
- C. Celiac disease
- D. Lactose intolerance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chronic constipation, bloating, abdominal pain relieved with defecation, absence of weight loss, blood in stools, or nocturnal symptoms, along with normal physical examination and routine blood tests, are indicative of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain or discomfort and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause. It is a diagnosis of exclusion made based on symptom criteria, and the provided clinical scenario aligns with the typical presentation of IBS.
2. A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Apply pressure to the injection site.
- D. Administer protamine sulfate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding. The appropriate action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. Increasing the heparin infusion rate can further elevate the aPTT, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Applying pressure to the injection site is not relevant in this situation. Administering protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of overdose or bleeding, but it is not the initial action for an elevated aPTT.
3. When a client reports being allergic to penicillin, which question should the nurse ask to gather more information?
- A. Are you allergic to any other medications?
- B. How often have you taken penicillin in the past?
- C. Is anyone else in your family allergic to penicillin?
- D. What happens to you when you take penicillin?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Questioning the client about the specific allergic reaction to penicillin is crucial for assessing the severity and type of allergic response, aiding in determining appropriate treatment and avoiding potential adverse reactions.
4. A 32-year-old woman presents with a 10-month history of an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium that is sometimes related to eating. She has heard about bacteria that can cause gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has had no change in her weight and denies dysphagia. Her laboratory tests are normal. Which of the following would you recommend?
- A. Serum qualitative test for H. pylori
- B. Refer for endoscopy
- C. Obtain an upper GI series
- D. Treat her for H. pylori infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient presents with dyspepsia, described as an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium, sometimes related to eating. In individuals under 45 years without warning signs such as anemia, weight loss, or dysphagia, a serum qualitative test for H. pylori is recommended to document H. pylori infection, especially if the patient has not been previously treated. It's important to note that a serum IgG can remain positive post-eradication. If H. pylori-positive patients do not respond to treatment, an endoscopy would be the next step for evaluation. An upper GI series is less sensitive than endoscopy in detecting lesions of the upper GI tract and cannot specifically detect H. pylori. Empiric therapy for H. pylori without confirmation is not recommended.
5. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. She has a history of similar episodes in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Ulcerative colitis
- B. Irritable bowel syndrome
- C. Celiac disease
- D. Diverticulitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding in a young woman with a history of similar episodes is highly suggestive of ulcerative colitis. This chronic inflammatory condition primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to symptoms such as bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and urgency. The recurrent nature of her symptoms and the presence of rectal bleeding further support this diagnosis over other conditions listed, such as irritable bowel syndrome, celiac disease, or diverticulitis, which typically do not present with the same combination of symptoms and history.
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