Nursing Elites

1. A 48-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. She has a history of ulcerative colitis. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hepatitis B
• B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• C. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• D. Autoimmune hepatitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms (fatigue, pruritus, jaundice) along with a history of ulcerative colitis and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels suggests primary sclerosing cholangitis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, such as ulcerative colitis. It is characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of the bile ducts, leading to cholestasis and elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels.

2. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?

• A. Diverticular bleed
• B. Duodenal ulcer
• C. Inflammatory bowel disease
• D. Vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.

3. A client with a severe head injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Urine output of 100 mL/hour.
• B. Intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute.
• D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Intracranial Pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal and may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a critical finding in a client with a severe head injury. Elevated ICP can lead to further brain damage and must be addressed promptly to prevent complications such as herniation. Monitoring and managing ICP are crucial in the care of patients with head injuries in the ICU.

4. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Offer the client high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals.
• B. Ask the client why they are not participating in therapy.
• C. Sit with the client and offer support without demanding participation.
• D. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of major depressive disorder where the client is non-participatory and withdrawn, sitting with the client and providing support without pressuring them to engage in activities like eating or therapy is crucial. This approach respects the client's current state, builds trust, and creates a supportive environment that can eventually lead to the client opening up and accepting help.

5. A client with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Apply the patch to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin.
• B. Use a heating pad over the patch to enhance absorption.
• C. Change the patch daily to maintain effectiveness.
• D. Place the patch on the same site with each application.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch is to place it on a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin. This ensures proper adhesion of the patch and optimal absorption of the medication. Using a heating pad over the patch is contraindicated as it can increase drug absorption and lead to overdose. Changing the patch daily is necessary for some medications, but fentanyl patches are usually changed every 72 hours to maintain a steady blood level of the medication. Placing the patch on the same site with each application can lead to skin irritation, uneven drug absorption, and should be avoided to allow the skin to recover between applications.

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