Nursing Elites

1. What health promotion teaching should prioritize to prevent drug-induced hepatitis?

• A. Finish all prescribed courses of antibiotics, regardless of symptom resolution
• B. Adhere to dosing recommendations of over-the-counter analgesics
• C. Ensure that expired medications are disposed of safely
• D. Ensure that pharmacists regularly review drug regimens for potential interactions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adhering to dosing recommendations of over-the-counter analgesics is crucial in preventing drug-induced hepatitis. Overdosing on analgesics can lead to liver damage, making it essential to follow the recommended dosages to reduce the risk of hepatotoxicity.

2. A client with liver failure is at an increased risk of bleeding due to the inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function?

• A. Alterations in glucose metabolism
• B. Retention of bile salts
• C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes
• D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The liver's inability to use vitamin K is the most likely factor contributing to the loss of prothrombin synthesis in liver failure. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin, a crucial clotting factor. In liver failure, impaired utilization of vitamin K leads to decreased production of prothrombin, increasing the risk of bleeding in affected individuals.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What advice should the nurse give regarding insulin administration?

• A. Skip your insulin dose until you can eat.
• B. Take your insulin as prescribed, but monitor your blood glucose closely.
• C. Reduce your insulin dose by half.
• D. Only take your long-acting insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing nausea and vomiting is to take insulin as prescribed but monitor blood glucose closely. It is essential to continue insulin therapy even if not eating normally to prevent complications from high blood sugar levels. Skipping insulin doses can lead to dangerous fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Reducing the insulin dose without proper guidance can also result in uncontrolled blood sugar. Taking only long-acting insulin may not provide adequate coverage for mealtime blood sugar elevation. Therefore, the best course of action is to take prescribed insulin doses while closely monitoring blood glucose levels.

4. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

• A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
• B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
• C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
• D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

5. A 36-year-old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea. The diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obtained and found to be 280 pg/mL (normal <115 pg/mL). An abdominal CT is negative. What would you do now?

• A. Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy
• B. Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion
• C. Treat her for H. pylori
• D. Obtain a dedicated small bowel series

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The next step after finding an elevated fasting serum gastrin level is to perform a secretin stimulation test. This test helps differentiate between gastrinoma and other causes of elevated gastrin levels, such as proton-pump inhibitor therapy or H2 antagonists. In gastrinoma, the serum gastrin level should further increase after secretin infusion, while in other conditions, the levels would not significantly rise. Exploratory laparotomy would be premature without confirming the diagnosis. Treating for H. pylori is not indicated as the diagnosis of gastrinoma is under consideration and not Helicobacter pylori infection. A dedicated small bowel series is not the next appropriate step in this scenario.

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