what health promotion teaching should the nurse prioritize to prevent drug induced hepatitis
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. What health promotion teaching should prioritize to prevent drug-induced hepatitis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adhering to dosing recommendations of over-the-counter analgesics is crucial in preventing drug-induced hepatitis. Overdosing on analgesics can lead to liver damage, making it essential to follow the recommended dosages to reduce the risk of hepatotoxicity.

2. A 35-year-old man presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food. A barium swallow shows a 'bird beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The 'bird beak' appearance on a barium swallow is characteristic of achalasia, a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax properly. This leads to difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food, which are hallmark symptoms of achalasia.

3. During a home visit, the nurse should evaluate the adequacy of a client's COPD treatment by assessing for which primary symptom?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea is crucial when evaluating COPD treatment effectiveness as it is a primary symptom of the condition. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common and distressing symptom in COPD patients. Monitoring the severity of dyspnea can provide valuable insights into the client's response to treatment and disease progression.

4. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.

5. A 40-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. He has a history of Crohn's disease. Laboratory tests reveal low hemoglobin and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, along with the history of Crohn's disease, and the laboratory findings of low hemoglobin and elevated ESR, strongly suggest a Crohn's disease flare. These clinical manifestations are classic features of a flare-up in a patient with a known history of Crohn's disease.

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