ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is complaining of a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 110/70, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/minute, heart rate is 74 beats/minute, and temperature is 98.6ยบ F. The client's fundus is firm and one fingerbreadth above the umbilicus. What action should the healthcare team implement first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
- B. Determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery.
- C. Assign a licensed nurse to reassess the client's vital signs.
- D. Obtain a STAT hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to implement first is to determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery. Anesthesia can be a potential cause of postpartum headaches. This information is crucial in assessing and managing the client's condition effectively before considering other interventions. It helps in identifying possible contributing factors to the client's complaint of a severe headache and guides the healthcare team in providing appropriate care and treatment.
2. A healthcare professional is participating in the emergency care of a client who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the healthcare professional anticipate?
- A. Infusion of intravenous heparin
- B. IV administration of albumin
- C. STAT administration of vitamin K by the intramuscular route
- D. IV administration of octreotide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for variceal bleeding is IV administration of octreotide. Octreotide helps control bleeding from varices by reducing portal blood flow and pressure, which is crucial in managing this emergency situation.
3. The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. What intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the NG tube?
- A. Flush the NG tube with water before and after feedings.
- B. Check gastric residual volume every 6 hours.
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees.
- D. Replace the NG tube every 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees is crucial in preventing aspiration, a common complication associated with nasogastric (NG) tubes and enteral feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs, promoting client safety and preventing respiratory complications. Flushing the NG tube with water before and after feedings (Choice A) is not the primary intervention to prevent complications. Checking gastric residual volume every 6 hours (Choice B) is important but not directly related to preventing complications associated with the NG tube. Replacing the NG tube every 24 hours (Choice D) is not a standard practice and is not necessary to prevent complications if the tube is functioning properly.
4. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased heart rate.
- B. Decreased pedal edema.
- C. Elevated blood pressure.
- D. Improved urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with heart failure, decreased pedal edema is a positive indicator of improved cardiac output and reduced fluid retention. Digoxin works by increasing the strength of the heart's contractions, leading to improved circulation and reduced symptoms of heart failure, such as edema. Monitoring for decreased pedal edema is essential to assess the effectiveness of digoxin therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, and improved urine output are not specific indicators of digoxin's effectiveness in managing heart failure. Instead, the focus should be on improvements related to fluid retention and cardiac function, like decreased pedal edema.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?
- A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
- B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
- C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
- D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm3 is low and indicates leukopenia, which increases the client's risk for infection. Hemoglobin level and platelet count are not directly indicative of infection risk. Serum creatinine level is related to kidney function, not infection risk.
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