ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet
1. What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. One of the potential side effects of spironolactone therapy is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, making it crucial for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels) are not typically associated with spironolactone use in patients with chronic heart failure.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of enalapril (Vasotec) to a client with hypertension. Before administering the medication, the nurse should check which priority assessment?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering enalapril, an antihypertensive medication, the nurse should prioritize checking the client's blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it is at an acceptable level before giving the medication, as enalapril can further lower blood pressure. This assessment is crucial in preventing potential hypotensive episodes and adverse effects associated with excessive blood pressure reduction. Heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are important assessments but are not the priority before administering enalapril, which primarily affects blood pressure levels.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Decreased appetite
- C. Fatigue
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Verify INR levels
- B. Administer with food
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels
- D. Assess liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering warfarin, it is crucial to verify the patient's INR levels. INR monitoring is essential to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dose of warfarin for their condition and to minimize the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering warfarin with food, monitoring blood glucose levels, and assessing liver function are not directly related to the safe administration and monitoring of warfarin therapy.
5. When determining whether resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, what is being evaluated?
- A. Effectiveness
- B. Efficiency
- C. Adequacy
- D. Appropriateness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Efficiency is the correct answer because it assesses whether the desired outcomes were achieved with the least amount of resources expended. In the context of Ligtas Tigdas, evaluating efficiency would involve determining if the program goals were met in a cost-effective manner, optimizing the use of resources to achieve the best results.
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