Nursing Elites

1. What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. One of the potential side effects of spironolactone therapy is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, making it crucial for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels) are not typically associated with spironolactone use in patients with chronic heart failure.

2. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperglycemia. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to elevated blood sugar levels as a side effect, particularly in patients with diabetes or those predisposed to developing diabetes. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome.

3. A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase thyroid hormone production
• B. Suppress thyroid hormone production
• C. Enhance iodine absorption
• D. Stimulate the thyroid gland

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism by suppressing the production of thyroid hormones. It works by inhibiting the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, thereby reducing their levels in the body. This helps to alleviate the symptoms of hyperthyroidism and restore thyroid hormone levels to normal range.

4. A 65-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Gallstones
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Pancreatic cancer
• D. Primary biliary cirrhosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of weight loss, jaundice, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels strongly suggests pancreatic cancer. The presentation is classic for pancreatic malignancy, which commonly presents with obstructive jaundice due to the tumor blocking the common bile duct, leading to elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Weight loss is a common symptom of advanced pancreatic cancer. The palpable mass in the right upper quadrant corresponds to the location of the pancreas. Gallstones typically manifest with different symptoms, while hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis are less likely to present with a palpable mass and weight loss in this scenario.

5. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client has developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?

• A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
• B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
• C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
• D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dysphagia and gastrointestinal symptoms such as hypoactive bowel sounds and a firm, distended abdomen, continuous tube feeding might exacerbate the symptoms. This can lead to complications and should be questioned by the nurse.

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