HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?
- A. The CAGE is a tool for identifying substance abuse.
- B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
- C. One positive response indicates potential alcohol issues.
- D. All responses must be positive for alcohol dependence.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.
2. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?
- A. Auscultate the bowel sounds.
- B. Palpate the ankles for edema.
- C. Observe the skin for bruising.
- D. Measure the body temperature.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.
3. An older adult client with heart failure (HF) and hypertension (HTN) is receiving atenolol, furosemide, and enalapril. Which assessments are essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the medications?
- A. Bowel sounds and daily weight.
- B. Daily weight and blood pressure.
- C. Heart sounds and range of motion.
- D. Monitor for evidence of hypokalemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight and blood pressure is crucial to assess the effectiveness of diuretics (furosemide) and antihypertensives (atenolol, enalapril) in managing heart failure and hypertension. Changes in weight indicate fluid status, while blood pressure readings reflect the control of hypertension. Assessing bowel sounds and range of motion are important but not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of these specific medications in this scenario. Monitoring for hypokalemia is important due to furosemide's potential side effect, but it is not the primary assessment to evaluate medication effectiveness.
4. The nurse is providing care for a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the tube?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 15 degrees during feedings
- B. Aspirate gastric contents before administering medications
- C. Clamp the tube between feedings
- D. Flush the tube with water before and after feedings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Flushing the PEG tube with water before and after feedings helps prevent clogging and maintains tube patency. Proper flushing is essential for avoiding complications related to tube blockages. Elevating the head of the bed is important for preventing aspiration during and after feedings, not specifically related to PEG tube complications. Aspirating gastric contents before administering medications is not routinely recommended for PEG tube care. Clamping the tube between feedings can lead to tube occlusion and is not a standard practice in PEG tube care.
5. A client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO). What should the nurse prioritize in this client's care?
- A. Administer oral pain medication.
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of infection.
- D. Insert a nasogastric tube for decompression.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO), the nurse should prioritize monitoring the client's intake and output. This is crucial for assessing the client's fluid balance and ensuring that they are not becoming dehydrated or developing complications related to fluid status. Option A is incorrect because oral pain medication should not be administered to a client who is NPO. Option C is not the priority at this time, although monitoring for infection is important in the overall care of the client. Option D is not the initial priority unless there are specific indications for decompression, which would be determined by the healthcare provider.
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