HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?
- A. The CAGE is a tool for identifying substance abuse.
- B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
- C. One positive response indicates potential alcohol issues.
- D. All responses must be positive for alcohol dependence.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.
2. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Auscultate lung sounds.
- D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.
3. After receiving hemodialysis, what is the nurse's priority assessment for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Monitor the client's potassium level.
- B. Assess the client's blood pressure.
- C. Check the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
- D. Monitor for signs of infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. During hemodialysis, there is a risk of potassium shifting, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias if not properly managed. Assessing the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications. While assessing blood pressure, checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and monitoring for signs of infection are important aspects of care for a client with chronic kidney disease, monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to its immediate life-threatening potential post-dialysis.
4. A client is recovering from a hip replacement surgery. What is the priority nursing intervention to prevent complications?
- A. Encourage bed rest to prevent strain on the hip
- B. Assist the client with early ambulation
- C. Provide continuous passive motion therapy
- D. Administer pain medication before activity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assist the client with early ambulation. Early ambulation is a key intervention to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and promote circulation after hip replacement surgery. It also helps with overall recovery and reduces the risk of complications related to immobility, such as muscle atrophy and pressure ulcers. Choice A is incorrect as bed rest should be avoided to prevent complications associated with immobility. Choice C, continuous passive motion therapy, is not the priority intervention immediately post-hip replacement surgery. Choice D, administering pain medication before activity, is important but not the priority intervention to prevent complications in this case.
5. When speaking with a group of teens about chemotherapy side effects for cancer, which side effect would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?
- A. Mouth sores
- B. Fatigue
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Teens are more likely to be concerned with hair loss when discussing chemotherapy side effects because it is a visible and emotionally impactful side effect for them. While all the listed side effects are important to consider, hair loss can have a significant impact on a teenager's self-image and emotional well-being, making it a key point of interest for this age group. Mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, but they may not carry the same level of emotional weight and visibility as hair loss for teens.
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