HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. A 2-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections is brought to the clinic by the parents who are concerned about the child’s hearing. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ask the parents about the child’s speech development
- B. Perform a hearing test
- C. Inspect the child’s ears for drainage
- D. Refer the child to an audiologist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take is to inspect the child's ears for drainage. This step can provide immediate information on the presence of infection or fluid, which could be impacting the child's hearing. By assessing for drainage, the nurse can gather valuable initial data to determine the next course of action, such as further evaluation or treatment. Asking about speech development or referring to an audiologist would be secondary steps after assessing the physical condition of the ears. Performing a hearing test would also be premature without first examining the ears for any visible issues.
2. The client admitted with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is:
- A. Decreased blood flow.
- B. Increased blood flow.
- C. Slow blood flow.
- D. Thrombus formation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased blood flow.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), there is a narrowing or blockage of blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow to the extremities. This decreased blood flow results in inadequate oxygen supply to the muscles, causing pain, especially during physical activity when oxygen demand increases. Choice B, 'Increased blood flow,' is incorrect because PVD is characterized by impaired blood circulation rather than increased flow. Choice C, 'Slow blood flow,' is not precise as PVD involves a more significant reduction in blood flow. Choice D, 'Thrombus formation,' is related to the formation of blood clots within vessels, which can be a complication of PVD but is not its main characteristic.
3. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the charge nurse that a client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is reporting a severe headache. The client’s blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, heart rate is 74 beats/min, and temperature is 98.6°F (37°C). What action should the charge nurse implement first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
- B. Administer analgesics as prescribed.
- C. Increase the client’s fluid intake.
- D. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A severe headache post-delivery could indicate a serious condition such as preeclampsia or a spinal headache, which requires immediate medical attention. Notifying the healthcare provider of the assessment findings allows for prompt evaluation and appropriate management of the client's condition.
4. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy. What medication should the nurse have available in the event of an overdose of heparin?
- A. Protamine
- B. Amicar
- C. Imferon
- D. Diltiazem
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin overdose. It works by neutralizing the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Amicar (Choice B) is used to treat excessive bleeding due to elevated fibrinolytic activity and is not the antidote for heparin overdose. Imferon (Choice C) is an iron supplement and is not indicated for heparin overdose. Diltiazem (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension and angina, not for heparin overdose. Therefore, the correct choice is Protamine (Choice A).
5. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?
- A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement.
- B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policies.
- C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to introduce new policies aimed at preventing further safety events.
- D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it describes an effective method of communication where a unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement. This approach fosters open dialogue, provides constructive feedback, and promotes professional growth. Choice B is incorrect as it only involves the explanation of departmental policies without engaging in a two-way communication process. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on policy introduction after safety events rather than individual feedback. Choice D is incorrect as it involves discussing safety events with another manager and policy improvement, but it does not directly address individual performance feedback, which is essential for effective communication and professional development.