Nursing Elites

1. A 15-year-old adolescent with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital for severe weight loss. The nurse notes that the client has dry skin, brittle hair, and is severely underweight. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
• B. Monitor the client’s vital signs frequently
• C. Initiate a structured eating plan
• D. Provide education about healthy eating habits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention for the nurse is to initiate a structured eating plan. Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by severe food restriction, which can lead to malnutrition and severe weight loss. By starting a structured eating plan, the nurse can ensure the client receives the necessary nutrition to begin the process of weight restoration and recovery. Monitoring vital signs is essential, but without addressing the nutrition deficiency, vital signs may not improve significantly. Establishing a therapeutic relationship is crucial for long-term care but may not address the immediate risk of malnutrition. Providing education about healthy eating habits is important but may not be effective initially due to the severity of the client's condition.

2. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

3. A male infant with bronchiolitis is brought to the clinic by his mother. The infant is congested and febrile with a capillary refill of 2 seconds. Which information should the nurse discuss with the mother?

• A. Encourage the infant to play
• B. Limit the amount of oral intake
• C. Keep the infant isolated from others
• D. Place the infant on their back for naps

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bronchiolitis is a highly contagious respiratory infection commonly caused by viruses. Isolating the infant from others is crucial to prevent the spread of the infection to other vulnerable individuals, especially those with weakened immune systems. Encouraging play may not be appropriate as the infant is sick and needs rest. Limiting oral intake might be necessary if the infant is having difficulty swallowing due to respiratory distress. Placing the infant on their back for naps is a safe sleep practice but not the priority in this situation where preventing transmission of the infection is crucial.

4. A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of ear pain and fever. The practical nurse suspects otitis media. Which symptom supports this suspicion?

• A. Clear nasal discharge.
• B. Dry, hacking cough.
• C. Tugging at the ear.
• D. Sore throat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tugging at the ear is a common symptom in children with otitis media. It often indicates discomfort or pain in the ear, suggesting inflammation or infection in the middle ear. This behavior is frequently observed in young children who are unable to express their discomfort verbally, making it a significant clinical indicator for otitis media in this age group. Clear nasal discharge (Choice A) is more indicative of a cold or allergies, while a dry, hacking cough (Choice B) is not typically associated with otitis media. Although a sore throat (Choice D) can sometimes accompany ear infections, tugging at the ear is a more specific and reliable symptom in this case.

5. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

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