Nursing Elites

1. What is an organelle that helps the sperm to penetrate the ovum?

• A. Acrosome
• B. Zona pellucida
• C. Megalis
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Acrosome. The acrosome is an organelle located at the head of a sperm cell and contains enzymes that aid in the penetration of the ovum during fertilization. The Zona pellucida is a glycoprotein membrane surrounding the ovum, not an organelle. Megalis is not a relevant organelle in this context. Therefore, the correct choice is A, Acrosome.

2. Which of the following is a common presentation in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome?

• A. Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
• B. Amenorrhea, generalized hair loss, and weight gain
• C. Repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain
• D. Fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with irregular periods (oligomenorrhea), obesity, and increased hair growth (hirsutism) due to hormonal imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as amenorrhea (absence of periods), generalized hair loss, and weight gain are not typical features of PCOS. Choice C is incorrect as repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain are not characteristic of PCOS. Choice D is incorrect as fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding) are not primary symptoms seen in PCOS.

3. What is the area of the uterus where the fallopian tubes are inserted known as?

• A. Fundus
• B. Corpus or body
• C. Cavity
• D. Cornua

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cornua. The cornua refers to the upper, horn-like parts of the uterus where the fallopian tubes are inserted. The fundus (choice A) is the rounded top portion of the uterus, the corpus or body (choice B) is the main part of the uterus excluding the cervix and fundus, and the cavity (choice C) refers to the internal space within the uterus. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically denote the area where the fallopian tubes are inserted.

4. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

5. What is the most common cause of abortion in Zambia?

• A. Tuberculosis
• B. HIV
• C. Ascariasis
• D. Malaria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malaria is the most common cause of abortion in Zambia due to its significant impact on maternal health. Malaria can lead to severe complications during pregnancy, increasing the risk of spontaneous abortion. Tuberculosis (Choice A), HIV (Choice B), and Ascariasis (Choice C) are serious health conditions, but they are not typically identified as the primary cause of abortion in Zambia as malaria.

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