HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. What is an organelle that helps the sperm to penetrate the ovum?
- A. Acrosome
- B. Zona pellucida
- C. Megalis
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Acrosome. The acrosome is an organelle located at the head of a sperm cell and contains enzymes that aid in the penetration of the ovum during fertilization. The Zona pellucida is a glycoprotein membrane surrounding the ovum, not an organelle. Megalis is not a relevant organelle in this context. Therefore, the correct choice is A, Acrosome.
2. Which of the following are layers of endometrium in pregnancy EXCEPT?
- A. Decidua compacta
- B. Decidua spongiosum
- C. Decidua functionalis
- D. Decidua basalis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During pregnancy, the layers of endometrium include decidua compacta, decidua spongiosum, and decidua basalis. Decidua functionalis is the layer that sheds during menstruation and regenerates each cycle, not a layer of the endometrium during pregnancy. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Decidua compacta is the layer closest to the conceptus, decidua spongiosum is the middle layer, and decidua basalis is the layer adjacent to the myometrium.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. ‘I will take my medication in the morning before breakfast.’
- B. ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’
- C. ‘I should change positions slowly to avoid dizziness.’
- D. ‘I should avoid abrupt discontinuation of the medication.’
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’ This statement indicates a misunderstanding as beta-blockers do not typically affect potassium levels. The other choices (A, C, and D) are all appropriate statements for a client prescribed a beta-blocker. Choice A shows understanding of the timing of medication administration, choice C addresses orthostatic hypotension concerns, and choice D highlights the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication to prevent adverse effects.
4. The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding would the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. An increase in abdominal girth.
- B. Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
- C. Decreased bowel sounds.
- D. Difficulty in handwriting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Difficulty in handwriting is a common early sign of hepatic encephalopathy. Changes in handwriting can indicate progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma. Choice (A) is a sign of ascites, not hepatic encephalopathy. Hypertension and a bounding pulse (Choice B) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) do not directly indicate an increase in serum ammonia level, which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
5. Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client during the acute phase of myocardial infarction?
- A. Liquids as desired.
- B. Small, easily digested meals.
- C. Three regular meals per day.
- D. Nothing by mouth.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the acute phase of myocardial infarction, it is recommended to provide small, easily digested meals for the client. This type of diet is better tolerated as it reduces the workload on the heart, allowing for easier digestion and absorption of nutrients. Choice A, 'Liquids as desired,' may not provide adequate nutrition and may not be well-balanced. Choice C, 'Three regular meals per day,' may be too heavy for the client's weakened condition. Choice D, 'Nothing by mouth,' is not appropriate as the client still requires essential nutrients for recovery.