Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
• B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
• C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
• D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?

• A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
• C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm3 is low and indicates leukopenia, which increases the client's risk for infection. Hemoglobin level and platelet count are not directly indicative of infection risk. Serum creatinine level is related to kidney function, not infection risk.

3. A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Headache.
• B. Fever.
• C. Nuchal rigidity.
• D. Seizures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seizures in a client with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure or other complications requiring immediate intervention. Seizures can lead to further neurological damage and need prompt management to prevent adverse outcomes. Therefore, addressing seizures promptly is crucial in the care of a client with suspected meningitis.

4. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by decreasing aldosterone secretion, which leads to potassium retention in the body. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be closely monitored, as it can have serious consequences such as affecting cardiac function.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. INR of 2.5.
• B. PTT of 45 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.

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