ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
- B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
- C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
- D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.
2. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Ulcerative colitis
- B. Irritable bowel syndrome
- C. Crohn's disease
- D. Diverticulitis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss is characteristic of Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations, along with the gastrointestinal symptoms, point towards Crohn's disease rather than ulcerative colitis, irritable bowel syndrome, or diverticulitis.
3. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Offer the client high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals.
- B. Ask the client why they are not participating in therapy.
- C. Sit with the client and offer support without demanding participation.
- D. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of major depressive disorder where the client is non-participatory and withdrawn, sitting with the client and providing support without pressuring them to engage in activities like eating or therapy is crucial. This approach respects the client's current state, builds trust, and creates a supportive environment that can eventually lead to the client opening up and accepting help.
4. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Red man syndrome.
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- C. Mild itching at the IV site.
- D. Nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.
5. The charge nurse observes that a client with a nasogastric tube on low intermittent suction is drinking a glass of water immediately after the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) left the room. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP.
- B. Discuss the incident with the UAP at the end of the day.
- C. Write an incident report and notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Remind the client of the potential for electrolyte imbalance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP. This ensures immediate correction and education to prevent further issues with the nasogastric tube. Addressing the situation promptly can prevent harm to the client and reinforces the importance of following proper protocols.
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