a client receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea chest pain and a drop in blood pressure what should
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ATI LPN

ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

1. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and a drop in blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg position should be the initial action as it can help manage a suspected air embolism, a potential complication of TPN administration. This position helps trap air in the apex of the atrium, reducing the risk of air reaching the pulmonary circulation and causing further harm. Once the client is in a safe position, further actions such as stopping the TPN infusion, notifying the healthcare provider, and administering oxygen can be taken as appropriate.

2. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) can suppress bone marrow function, increasing the risk of infection, so it is important to report signs of infection promptly.

3. A 56-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has severe joint pain and swelling in her hands. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease five years ago but presently has no GI symptoms. You elect to start her on an NSAID. Which of the following is correct?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of peptic ulcer disease puts her at risk for NSAID-related GI toxicity. Misoprostol and proton-pump inhibitors have shown superiority over H2-blockers in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity. H. pylori infection can indeed increase the risk of an NSAID-induced ulcer in infected patients who are starting NSAID therapy. Sucralfate has not been proven to be effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is B, as misoprostol is the preferred option over an H2-blocker in this context.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, in a client with chronic renal failure, an effective outcome of epoetin alfa therapy would be an improvement in hemoglobin levels. This indicates that the medication is working as intended by addressing anemia, a common complication of chronic renal failure. Increased urine output (choice A) is not directly related to the action of epoetin alfa. Decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a primary expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Stable potassium levels (choice D) are important but not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in this context.

5. A client who is acutely ill has vigilant oral care included in their plan of care. What factor increases this client's risk for dental caries?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inadequate nutrition and decreased saliva production can lead to a conducive environment for the development of dental caries. Without proper nutrition and sufficient saliva, the protective mechanisms against cavities are compromised, making the individual more susceptible to tooth decay.

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