Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse's response?

• A. Noncompliance is probably affecting optimal medication effectiveness.
• B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to three times a day.
• C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
• D. NSAID response is variable, and trying another NSAID may be more effective.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Different NSAIDs work differently in individuals. If a patient is not experiencing relief with one NSAID, switching to a different one may provide better pain management. This variability in response is common among NSAIDs due to individual differences in drug metabolism and efficacy.

2. A client who participates in a health maintenance organization (HMO) needs a bone marrow transplant for the treatment of breast cancer. The client tells the nurse that she is concerned that her HMO may deny her claim. What action by the nurse best addresses the client's need at this time?

• A. Have the client's healthcare provider write a letter to the HMO explaining the need for the transplant.
• B. Help the client place a call to the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage.
• C. Encourage the client to contact a lawyer to file a lawsuit against the HMO if necessary.
• D. Have the social worker contact the state board of insurance to register a complaint against the HMO.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to help the client directly contact the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage. This approach addresses the client's immediate concerns and clarifies the situation, enabling the client to understand the coverage and potential outcomes regarding the bone marrow transplant. Choice A is not the best option as having the healthcare provider write a letter may not provide immediate clarification on coverage. Choice C is inappropriate as legal action should be considered as a last resort, and choice D involving the state board of insurance is not necessary at this initial stage of addressing the client's concern.

3. A 32-year-old woman presents with a 10-month history of an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium that is sometimes related to eating. She has heard about bacteria that can cause gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has had no change in her weight and denies dysphagia. Her laboratory tests are normal. Which of the following would you recommend?

• A. Serum qualitative test for H. pylori
• B. Refer for endoscopy
• C. Obtain an upper GI series
• D. Treat her for H. pylori infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient presents with dyspepsia, described as an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium, sometimes related to eating. In individuals under 45 years without warning signs such as anemia, weight loss, or dysphagia, a serum qualitative test for H. pylori is recommended to document H. pylori infection, especially if the patient has not been previously treated. It's important to note that a serum IgG can remain positive post-eradication. If H. pylori-positive patients do not respond to treatment, an endoscopy would be the next step for evaluation. An upper GI series is less sensitive than endoscopy in detecting lesions of the upper GI tract and cannot specifically detect H. pylori. Empiric therapy for H. pylori without confirmation is not recommended.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 6 liters/minute if the client is short of breath.
• B. Instruct the client to breathe deeply and cough frequently.
• C. Use a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate.
• D. Encourage the client to remove the oxygen when eating or drinking.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the appropriate intervention for clients with COPD receiving oxygen therapy. High flow rates can lead to respiratory depression in COPD patients. This intervention helps maintain a safe and controlled oxygen delivery to prevent potential complications associated with high oxygen flow rates.

5. What is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR?

• A. Proton-pump inhibitor
• B. Endoscopic balloon dilatation
• C. Sucralfate
• D. Esophageal resection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation and radiologic findings are consistent with achalasia. The absence of a mass on upper endoscopy and CT scan helps rule out secondary causes. Achalasia is best managed with endoscopic balloon dilatation or myotomy. Proton-pump inhibitors are not effective for achalasia. Sucralfate is not a primary treatment for achalasia. Esophageal resection is only considered if malignancy develops. Patients with achalasia may experience chest pain and weight loss due to food accumulation in the dilated esophagus. Endoscopic balloon dilatation is a safe and effective treatment option for improving symptoms in achalasia patients.

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