a recently widowed middle aged female client presents to the psychiatric clinic for evaluation and tells the nurse that she has little reason to live
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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

1. A recently widowed middle-aged female client presents to the psychiatric clinic for evaluation and tells the nurse that she has 'little reason to live.' She describes one previous suicidal gesture and admits to having a gun in her home. To maintain the client's confidentiality and to help ensure her safety, which action is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial to maintain the client's confidentiality while ensuring her safety. Contacting a person chosen by the client to remove the weapon from her home is the best course of action. This approach respects the client's autonomy and helps reduce the risk of harm without involving external authorities unnecessarily.

2. Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The OB nurse is most experienced in postoperative care, making the client who had a recent colon resection the most suitable assignment. This client would require care that aligns closely with the expertise and skills of the OB nurse, ensuring optimal patient outcomes and effective utilization of nursing resources.

3. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is important for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication in treating peptic ulcer disease. Choice A ('Take the medication with food') is incorrect because omeprazole should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect as it does not align with the optimal timing for omeprazole administration. Choice D ('Take the medication as needed for pain relief') is incorrect because omeprazole is not typically used for immediate pain relief but rather for long-term management of peptic ulcer disease.

4. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.

5. The charge nurse observes that a client with a nasogastric tube on low intermittent suction is drinking a glass of water immediately after the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) left the room. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP. This ensures immediate correction and education to prevent further issues with the nasogastric tube. Addressing the situation promptly can prevent harm to the client and reinforces the importance of following proper protocols.

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