Nursing Elites

1. The client with a history of heart failure is taking furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum potassium.
• C. Serum calcium.
• D. Serum magnesium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

2. A 28-year-old woman at 34 weeks of gestation presents with elevated liver enzymes and pruritus. Labs reveal total bilirubin to be 4.2 mg/dL, AST 480 U/L, ALT 640 U/L, and alkaline phosphatase 232 U/L. Viral hepatitis serologies and ANA are negative. On physical examination, she is jaundiced, but has a normal blood pressure, no edema, and a soft abdomen. The fetus is in no distress. Which of the following is true?

• A. The baby should be delivered immediately
• B. Symptoms will resolve promptly after delivery
• C. There is little risk of recurrence with subsequent pregnancies
• D. The mother should be screened for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP), a condition characterized by elevated liver enzymes, pruritus, and jaundice in the absence of other liver disease causes. ICP typically resolves promptly after delivery. Immediate delivery is indicated only for fetal distress, not maternal symptoms. ICP does have a significant risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies. Treatment options for ICP include cholestyramine and ursodeoxycholic acid. Screening for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency is not indicated in this context as it is associated with acute fatty liver of pregnancy and HELLP syndrome, not ICP.

3. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?

• A. Supine
• B. Prone
• C. High Fowler's
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The High Fowler's position is the most appropriate position for a patient with COPD experiencing severe dyspnea. This position helps improve lung expansion and reduce dyspnea by allowing the diaphragm to move more freely and increasing the efficiency of breathing. It also helps reduce the work of breathing and enhances oxygenation in patients with COPD. Supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. Prone position (Choice B) is not ideal for COPD patients experiencing severe dyspnea as it may restrict breathing. Trendelenburg position (Choice D) is not recommended for COPD patients with dyspnea as it can further compromise breathing.

4. When implementing patient teaching for a patient admitted with hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus scheduled for discharge the second day after admission, what is the priority action for the nurse?

• A. Instruct about the increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
• B. Provide detailed information about dietary glucose control.
• C. Teach glucose self-monitoring and medication administration.
• D. Give information about the effects of exercise on glucose control.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when time is limited is to focus on essential teaching. In this scenario, the patient should be educated on how to self-monitor glucose levels and administer medications to control glucose levels. This empowers the patient with immediate skills for managing their condition. Instructing about the increased risk of cardiovascular disease (choice A) is important but not as urgent as teaching self-monitoring and medication administration. Providing detailed information about dietary glucose control (choice B) can be beneficial but is secondary to ensuring the patient can monitor and manage their glucose levels. Teaching about the effects of exercise (choice D) is relevant but not as critical as immediate self-monitoring and medication administration education.

5. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?

• A. Diverticular bleed
• B. Duodenal ulcer
• C. Inflammatory bowel disease
• D. Vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.

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