ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. The client with a history of heart failure is taking furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum magnesium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.
2. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client has developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
- A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
- B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
- C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
- D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with dysphagia and gastrointestinal symptoms such as hypoactive bowel sounds and a firm, distended abdomen, continuous tube feeding might exacerbate the symptoms. This can lead to complications and should be questioned by the nurse.
3. In evaluating a 10-year-old child with meningitis suspected of having diabetes insipidus, which finding is indicative of diabetes insipidus?
- A. Decreased urine specific gravity.
- B. Elevated urine glucose.
- C. Decreased serum potassium.
- D. Increased serum sodium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine, leading to decreased urine specific gravity. This results in the excretion of large volumes of dilute urine, causing a decrease in urine specific gravity. Therefore, when evaluating a suspected case of diabetes insipidus, a finding of decreased urine specific gravity is indicative of this condition.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- B. Take the medication 30 minutes before meals.
- C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with myasthenia gravis prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon) is to take the medication 30 minutes before meals. This timing is crucial as it helps improve muscle strength for eating and swallowing. By taking the medication before meals, the client can experience enhanced muscle function during mealtime, which is especially important for managing the symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication with food may decrease its effectiveness, avoiding dairy products is not necessary, and taking the medication at bedtime does not coincide with the optimal timing for enhancing muscle function during meals.
5. A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
- B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
- C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
- D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with urinary sepsis, administering Piperacillin/tazobactam first is crucial as it is an antibiotic that directly targets the infection. Addressing the infection promptly is essential to prevent its progression and complications. Vancomycin, Pantoprazole, and Enoxaparin are important medications for the patient's overall treatment plan, but in this scenario, the antibiotic should take precedence due to the urgency of managing the sepsis.
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