which of the following is an early indicator that a client with a tracheostomy may require suctioning
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. Which of the following is an early indicator that a client with a tracheostomy may require suctioning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early indicator that suctioning is necessary for a client with a tracheostomy. Irritability can signal discomfort or difficulty breathing, which may be due to the need for suctioning to clear the airway. Decreased respiratory rate, bradycardia, and decreased oxygen saturation are not typically early indicators that suctioning is needed in a client with a tracheostomy. These symptoms may occur later if the airway is not cleared promptly.

2. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The LPN should question the assignment of replacing the PCA pump cartridge and tubing as it is outside the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are not trained to handle tasks related to PCA pumps, which involve medication administration and monitoring that are typically within the RN's responsibilities. Assisting a postop client with an incentive spirometer (Choice A), collecting a clean catch urine specimen (Choice B), and providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client with pneumonia (Choice C) are all tasks that fall within the LPN's scope of practice and do not require questioning by the LPN.

3. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with chest pain, the initial step is to assess the severity of pain and monitor the electrocardiogram (ECG) to look for signs of cardiac issues. Administering nitroglycerin and oxygen (Choice B) is a treatment option for suspected cardiac chest pain but should not precede a thorough assessment. Administering aspirin and providing pain relief (Choice C) may be indicated later, but the priority is to assess the situation first. Monitoring for nausea and administering IV fluids (Choice D) is not the initial assessment for chest pain unless there are specific indications present.

5. What are the key nursing interventions for a patient receiving diuretic therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor electrolyte levels and administer potassium as needed. Patients on diuretic therapy are at risk of electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes and administering potassium as needed are crucial nursing interventions to prevent imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because restricting fluid intake and providing a low-sodium diet are not typically indicated for patients on diuretic therapy. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral fluids and increasing dietary potassium can exacerbate electrolyte imbalances in patients on diuretics. Choice D is incorrect as providing high-sodium foods would worsen electrolyte balance issues in patients on diuretic therapy.

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