Nursing Elites

1. A client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL has a pressure ulcer. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
• B. Consult a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status
• C. Administer a protein supplement
• D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL and a pressure ulcer is to consult a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status. Adequate nutrition is essential for wound healing. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance is important but not the first priority in this situation. Administering a protein supplement can be considered after dietary evaluation. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the primary intervention for addressing a pressure ulcer related to low albumin levels.

2. What is the most appropriate response when a client with chronic kidney disease asks about fluid restrictions?

• A. Fluid restrictions are not needed for all clients with chronic kidney disease.
• B. You may need to limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• C. Fluid restrictions are based on your lab results and daily weights.
• D. Restricting fluids is only necessary during dialysis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response when a client with chronic kidney disease asks about fluid restrictions is to inform them that limiting fluid intake may be necessary to prevent fluid overload. This is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications such as edema and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect as fluid restrictions are commonly advised for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice C is partially correct as fluid restrictions are indeed based on lab results and daily weights, but the primary goal is to prevent fluid overload. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restrictions are not limited to just during dialysis; they are often recommended throughout the day to manage the condition.

3. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
• B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
• C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
• D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

4. A client with dementia is at risk of falling. What is the best intervention to prevent injury?

• A. Place the client in a room close to the nurses' station
• B. Use a bed exit alarm
• C. Encourage family members to stay with the client at all times
• D. Raise all four side rails

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a bed exit alarm is the best intervention to prevent injury in a client with dementia at risk of falling. This device alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, allowing for timely assistance and reducing the risk of falls. Placing the client in a room close to the nurses' station may help with supervision but does not provide immediate alerts like a bed exit alarm. Encouraging family members to stay with the client at all times may not be feasible, and raising all four side rails can lead to restraint issues and is not recommended unless necessary for the client's safety.

5. What are the differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of treatment?

• A. Type 1: Insulin therapy; Type 2: Lifestyle modifications and oral agents
• B. Type 1: Oral agents; Type 2: Insulin therapy
• C. Type 1: Insulin resistance; Type 2: Insulin deficiency
• D. Type 1: Exercise and diet; Type 2: Insulin only

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Type 1 diabetes necessitates insulin therapy, whereas Type 2 diabetes is managed with lifestyle modifications and oral agents. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes does not use oral agents as a primary treatment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the pathophysiology of diabetes types rather than their treatments. Choice D is incorrect because Type 2 diabetes management involves more than just insulin and includes lifestyle changes and oral medications.

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