Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor daily fluid intake
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels
• C. Measure intake and output
• D. Administer insulin as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood glucose levels.' When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which has a high glucose content, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels closely to prevent hyperglycemia. Monitoring daily fluid intake (Choice A) is important in other contexts but is not directly related to TPN administration. Measuring intake and output (Choice C) is a general nursing intervention that is relevant for assessing fluid balance but is not specific to TPN administration. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice D) may be necessary for clients with hyperglycemia, but this intervention is based on the blood glucose monitoring results and the healthcare provider's orders, not a standard intervention for all clients receiving TPN.

2. What guides behavior and decision making based on values and beliefs?

• A. Morals
• B. Beliefs
• C. Ethics
• D. Autonomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Morals are the values and beliefs that guide behavior and decision-making. While beliefs are part of the equation, morals specifically dictate how individuals act and make choices. Ethics, on the other hand, refer to a system of moral principles governing conduct. Autonomy, although important, is not directly related to the values and beliefs that guide behavior and decision making.

3. A nurse is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse include in the report?

• A. Hgb 12.8 g/dl.
• B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L.
• C. RBC 4.4 million/mm3.
• D. Platelets 100,000/mm3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Platelets 100,000/mm3." A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is low and increases the client's risk for bleeding, which is crucial information to communicate during the change-of-shift report. Choices A, B, and C provide values within normal ranges and are not directly related to the client's postoperative status or risk for complications. Therefore, they are not the priority information to include in the report.

4. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Obesity and diabetes
• C. Dehydration and malnutrition
• D. Use of assistive devices and prolonged bedrest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

5. During the admission of a client with a latex allergy, which of the following supplies has the potential to contain latex?

• A. Urinary catheters
• B. Indwelling catheters
• C. Sterile gloves
• D. Sterile gowns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urinary catheters. Urinary catheters often contain latex, which can trigger an allergic reaction in clients with latex allergy. Indwelling catheters (choice B), sterile gloves (choice C), and sterile gowns (choice D) can be latex-free alternatives. However, urinary catheters are more commonly made with latex, making them a higher risk for clients with latex allergies.

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