ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
- A. Hand hygiene
- B. Wearing personal protective equipment
- C. Sterilizing equipment
- D. Isolating infected patients
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hand hygiene is considered the most effective method to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Proper hand hygiene, including washing hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer, is crucial in reducing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another. While wearing personal protective equipment, sterilizing equipment, and isolating infected patients are also important infection control measures, they are not as universally effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections. Personal protective equipment can prevent contact with infectious materials, sterilizing equipment reduces the risk of contamination, and isolating infected patients helps prevent the spread of specific infections, but they are more targeted approaches compared to the broad and essential practice of hand hygiene.
2. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
- C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.
3. A client is to start taking furosemide and is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?
- A. Cabbage
- B. Bananas
- C. Carrots
- D. Potatoes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which helps counter the potassium-depleting effects of furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so including potassium-rich foods like bananas in the diet can help maintain a healthy potassium level. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the potassium needs associated with furosemide therapy and are not the most appropriate recommendations in this context.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with an NG tube who reports nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions. What is the nurse's next step?
- A. Administer an antiemetic
- B. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
- C. Increase the suction setting
- D. Replace the NG tube
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. This action helps relieve blockages that may be causing the symptoms of nausea and decreased gastric secretions. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) may mask the underlying issue without addressing the possible blockage. Increasing the suction setting (Choice C) is not indicated without first addressing the potential blockage. Replacing the NG tube (Choice D) is also premature before attempting to clear any obstructions.
5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access