Nursing Elites

1. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?

• A. Hand hygiene
• B. Wearing personal protective equipment
• C. Sterilizing equipment
• D. Isolating infected patients

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hand hygiene is considered the most effective method to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Proper hand hygiene, including washing hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer, is crucial in reducing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another. While wearing personal protective equipment, sterilizing equipment, and isolating infected patients are also important infection control measures, they are not as universally effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections. Personal protective equipment can prevent contact with infectious materials, sterilizing equipment reduces the risk of contamination, and isolating infected patients helps prevent the spread of specific infections, but they are more targeted approaches compared to the broad and essential practice of hand hygiene.

2. A nurse is instructing a group of nursing students about the responsibilities involved with organ donation and procurement. When the nurse explains that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant have to meet the same qualifications, the students should understand that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which ethical principle?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Non-maleficence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Justice. Justice in healthcare ethics refers to fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and treatments. In this scenario, ensuring that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant meet the same qualifications demonstrates the ethical principle of justice by providing equal opportunities for all candidates. Choice A, fidelity, pertains to keeping promises and being faithful to agreements, which is not the primary ethical principle at play in this situation. Autonomy, choice B, relates to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, which is not directly applicable in the context of organ transplant qualifications. Non-maleficence, choice D, refers to the principle of doing no harm, which is important but not the primary ethical principle highlighted in this scenario.

3. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer oxygen and call for emergency assistance
• B. Position the patient in a prone position and give fluids
• C. Administer anticoagulants and elevate the patient's legs
• D. Administer thrombolytics and perform chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen and calling for emergency assistance are the immediate priorities when managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps support the patient's respiratory function, while emergency assistance is crucial for further evaluation and treatment. Positioning the patient in a prone position or giving fluids can worsen the condition by impeding blood flow. Administering anticoagulants may be part of the treatment plan but is not the initial response. Thrombolytics and chest physiotherapy are not first-line treatments for suspected pulmonary embolism and can even be harmful without prior evaluation.

4. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following images should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing ptosis?

• A. Drooping eyelids
• B. Unequal pupils
• C. Facial twitching
• D. Facial droop

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Drooping eyelids.' Ptosis, characterized by drooping of the eyelid, is a classic symptom seen in myasthenia gravis. This occurs due to muscle weakness, particularly in the muscles that control eyelid movement. Choice B, 'Unequal pupils,' is not associated with ptosis and may indicate other neurological issues. Choice C, 'Facial twitching,' is not a typical sign of ptosis but could be related to other conditions like nerve irritation. Choice D, 'Facial droop,' is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the facial nerve, like Bell's palsy, and is not a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis.

5. A client with newly diagnosed type I diabetes mellitus is being seen by the home health nurse. The physician orders include: 1,200-calorie ADA diet, 15 units of NPH insulin before breakfast, and check blood sugar qid. When the nurse visits the client at 5 PM, the nurse observes the man performing a blood sugar analysis. The result is 50 mg/dL. The nurse would expect the client to be

• A. Confused with cold, clammy skin and a pulse of 110
• B. Lethargic with hot, dry skin and rapid, deep respirations
• C. Alert and cooperative with a BP of 130/80 and respirations of 12
• D. Short of breath, with distended neck veins and a bounding pulse of 96

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Low blood sugar levels (50 mg/dL) typically cause confusion, cold clammy skin, and an increased pulse (tachycardia). Option A correctly describes the expected symptoms of hypoglycemia, which include confusion due to the brain's inadequate glucose supply, cold and clammy skin due to sympathetic nervous system activation, and an increased pulse (110 bpm) as the body reacts to low blood sugar levels. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Lethargy, hot dry skin, rapid deep respirations, normal vital signs, shortness of breath, distended neck veins, and bounding pulse are more indicative of other conditions or normal physiological responses, not hypoglycemia.

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