Nursing Elites

1. What is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Irritability
• C. Hypotension
• D. Decreased oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions accumulate in the airway, it can lead to discomfort and irritability in the client. Bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased oxygen saturation are usually later signs of inadequate airway clearance and oxygenation. Bradycardia may indicate severe hypoxia, while hypotension and decreased oxygen saturation are consequences of prolonged airway obstruction.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with an NG tube who reports nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions. What is the nurse's next step?

• A. Administer an antiemetic
• B. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
• C. Increase the suction setting
• D. Replace the NG tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. This action helps relieve blockages that may be causing the symptoms of nausea and decreased gastric secretions. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) may mask the underlying issue without addressing the possible blockage. Increasing the suction setting (Choice C) is not indicated without first addressing the potential blockage. Replacing the NG tube (Choice D) is also premature before attempting to clear any obstructions.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes.
• C. Place the client in the lithotomy position.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep-tendon reflexes is crucial in clients with preeclampsia as hyperreflexia can indicate severe complications. Restricting the client's fluid intake is not recommended as hydration is essential. Placing the client in the lithotomy position can worsen preeclampsia by reducing blood flow to the heart, so it should be avoided. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may not be suitable for a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of falls and increased stress on the body.

4. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty should be instructed to do which of the following?

• A. Avoid using a walker while walking.
• B. Keep the hip flexed at 90° while sitting.
• C. Place a pillow between your legs when turning.
• D. Cross your legs at the ankles when sitting.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing a pillow between the legs is essential post-total hip arthroplasty to prevent adduction of the hip joint, reducing the risk of dislocation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Using a walker while walking is encouraged for support and stability. Keeping the hip flexed at 90° while sitting can increase the risk of hip dislocation. Crossing legs at the ankles when sitting may also lead to hip dislocation.

5. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
• B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
• C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
• D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

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