Nursing Elites

1. Why is a client with ascites scheduled for a paracentesis procedure?

• A. To diagnose liver disease
• B. To relieve abdominal pressure
• C. To assess kidney function
• D. To reduce blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "To relieve abdominal pressure." Paracentesis is performed to drain accumulated fluid in the peritoneal cavity, providing symptomatic relief for clients with ascites. Choice A is incorrect because paracentesis is not a diagnostic procedure for liver disease. Choice C is incorrect as assessing kidney function would typically involve different procedures. Choice D is incorrect as paracentesis does not directly impact blood pressure.

2. What health promotion teaching should prioritize to prevent drug-induced hepatitis?

• A. Finish all prescribed courses of antibiotics, regardless of symptom resolution
• B. Adhere to dosing recommendations of over-the-counter analgesics
• C. Ensure that expired medications are disposed of safely
• D. Ensure that pharmacists regularly review drug regimens for potential interactions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adhering to dosing recommendations of over-the-counter analgesics is crucial in preventing drug-induced hepatitis. Overdosing on analgesics can lead to liver damage, making it essential to follow the recommended dosages to reduce the risk of hepatotoxicity.

3. A client with liver failure is at an increased risk of bleeding due to the inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function?

• A. Alterations in glucose metabolism
• B. Retention of bile salts
• C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes
• D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The liver's inability to use vitamin K is the most likely factor contributing to the loss of prothrombin synthesis in liver failure. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin, a crucial clotting factor. In liver failure, impaired utilization of vitamin K leads to decreased production of prothrombin, increasing the risk of bleeding in affected individuals.

4. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal low TSH and high free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Thyroiditis
• D. Thyroid cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of low TSH and high free T4 levels is characteristic of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is associated with symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and diarrhea, contrasting with the typical presentation of hypothyroidism. Therefore, in this case, the most likely diagnosis is hyperthyroidism.

5. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

• A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
• B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
• C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
• D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

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