a client with ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis what is the primary purpose of this procedure
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. Why is a client with ascites scheduled for a paracentesis procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "To relieve abdominal pressure." Paracentesis is performed to drain accumulated fluid in the peritoneal cavity, providing symptomatic relief for clients with ascites. Choice A is incorrect because paracentesis is not a diagnostic procedure for liver disease. Choice C is incorrect as assessing kidney function would typically involve different procedures. Choice D is incorrect as paracentesis does not directly impact blood pressure.

2. A client who has Type 1 diabetes and is at 10-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic complaining of a headache, nausea, sweating, feeling shaky, and being tired all the time. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to check the client's blood glucose level. This is crucial to determine if the symptoms are a result of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia, which requires immediate attention to maintain the client's health and the health of the developing fetus.

3. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a foot ulcer. The nurse should recognize that which intervention is most critical in promoting healing of the foot ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic clients with foot ulcers, strict control of blood glucose levels is essential for promoting wound healing. High blood glucose levels can impair circulation and compromise the body's ability to fight infection, delaying the healing process. By maintaining optimal blood glucose levels, the client's overall health and wound healing potential are improved.

4. A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding. The appropriate action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. Increasing the heparin infusion rate can further elevate the aPTT, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Applying pressure to the injection site is not relevant in this situation. Administering protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of overdose or bleeding, but it is not the initial action for an elevated aPTT.

5. A 50-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol use. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum amylase and lipase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's history of heavy alcohol use, severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, vomiting, and elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are classic signs of acute pancreatitis. Alcohol consumption is a common predisposing factor for pancreatitis, leading to inflammation of the pancreas. The clinical presentation, along with the laboratory findings, strongly support the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis in this patient.

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