Nursing Elites

1. Why is a client with ascites scheduled for a paracentesis procedure?

• A. To diagnose liver disease
• B. To relieve abdominal pressure
• C. To assess kidney function
• D. To reduce blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "To relieve abdominal pressure." Paracentesis is performed to drain accumulated fluid in the peritoneal cavity, providing symptomatic relief for clients with ascites. Choice A is incorrect because paracentesis is not a diagnostic procedure for liver disease. Choice C is incorrect as assessing kidney function would typically involve different procedures. Choice D is incorrect as paracentesis does not directly impact blood pressure.

2. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?

• A. A dedicated small bowel series has a high likelihood of being positive
• B. 81 mg of aspirin per day decreases the benefit of using a COX II inhibitor
• C. The patient should have a provocative arteriogram with heparin infusion to identify the source of blood loss
• D. Hormonal therapy has been shown to be effective in decreasing blood loss due to arteriovenous malformations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.

3. A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Tell him he can have a day pass if he calms down.
• B. Put the client's behavior on extinction.
• C. Decrease the volume on the television set.
• D. Instruct the client to sit down and be quiet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a direct and assertive approach that can help de-escalate the situation safely. It sets clear boundaries and expectations for the client's behavior, which may help reduce agitation and aggression in this scenario. Offering a day pass if the client calms down (Choice A) might reinforce the aggressive behavior. Putting the client's behavior on extinction (Choice B) involves not reinforcing the behavior, but it may not directly address the immediate safety concern. Decreasing the volume on the television set (Choice C) does not address the client's behavior directly and may not effectively manage the escalating situation.

4. During the initial assessment of a client with a history of substance abuse admitted for detoxification, which intervention is most important?

• A. Obtain a detailed substance use history.
• B. Establish a trusting nurse-client relationship.
• C. Evaluate the client's physical health status.
• D. Determine the client's readiness for change.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's physical health status is the most critical intervention during the initial assessment of a client with a history of substance abuse admitted for detoxification. This evaluation helps identify and address any immediate health risks, such as withdrawal symptoms or medical complications, to ensure the client's safety and well-being during the detoxification process. Option A, obtaining a detailed substance use history, is important but not the most critical initially. Option B, establishing a trusting nurse-client relationship, is important but assessing physical health takes precedence. Option D, determining the client's readiness for change, is valuable but assessing physical health for immediate risks is the priority.

5. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

• A. Soft, spongy fundus.
• B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
• C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
• D. Unilateral lower leg pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.

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