ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is participating in the emergency care of a client who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the healthcare professional anticipate?
- A. Infusion of intravenous heparin
- B. IV administration of albumin
- C. STAT administration of vitamin K by the intramuscular route
- D. IV administration of octreotide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for variceal bleeding is IV administration of octreotide. Octreotide helps control bleeding from varices by reducing portal blood flow and pressure, which is crucial in managing this emergency situation.
2. A 50-year-old man presents with progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus. Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Pancreatic cancer
- B. Chronic pancreatitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus along with a pancreatic mass, particularly in the head of the pancreas, strongly suggests pancreatic cancer as the most likely diagnosis. These symptoms are classic for obstructive jaundice caused by a mass in the head of the pancreas, making pancreatic cancer the most fitting choice.
3. The nurse is providing an educational workshop about coronary artery disease (CAD) and its risk factors. The nurse explains to participants that CAD has many risk factors, some that can be controlled and some that cannot. What risk factors should the nurse list that can be controlled or modified?
- A. Gender, obesity, family history, and smoking
- B. Inactivity, stress, gender, and smoking
- C. Cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking
- D. Stress, family history, and obesity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking are controllable risk factors for CAD. Managing these factors through lifestyle changes and medical interventions can help reduce the risk of developing coronary artery disease.
4. A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Tell him he can have a day pass if he calms down.
- B. Put the client's behavior on extinction.
- C. Decrease the volume on the television set.
- D. Instruct the client to sit down and be quiet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a direct and assertive approach that can help de-escalate the situation safely. It sets clear boundaries and expectations for the client's behavior, which may help reduce agitation and aggression in this scenario. Offering a day pass if the client calms down (Choice A) might reinforce the aggressive behavior. Putting the client's behavior on extinction (Choice B) involves not reinforcing the behavior, but it may not directly address the immediate safety concern. Decreasing the volume on the television set (Choice C) does not address the client's behavior directly and may not effectively manage the escalating situation.
5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest.
- B. Use of accessory muscles to breathe.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical finding in a client with COPD. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications and may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation levels and prevent further respiratory distress. Monitoring and maintaining adequate oxygen saturation is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and preventing respiratory failure.
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