ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is participating in the emergency care of a client who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the healthcare professional anticipate?
- A. Infusion of intravenous heparin
- B. IV administration of albumin
- C. STAT administration of vitamin K by the intramuscular route
- D. IV administration of octreotide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for variceal bleeding is IV administration of octreotide. Octreotide helps control bleeding from varices by reducing portal blood flow and pressure, which is crucial in managing this emergency situation.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with a foot ulcer. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to promote healing of the ulcer?
- A. Apply a heating pad to the ulcer twice daily.
- B. Wear tight-fitting shoes to protect the ulcer.
- C. Keep the ulcer clean and dry.
- D. Limit walking to reduce pressure on the ulcer.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Keep the ulcer clean and dry." For clients with diabetes mellitus, it is crucial to maintain foot ulcers clean and dry to prevent infection and promote healing. Moist environments can lead to bacterial growth and delay healing. Applying a heating pad (Choice A) can increase the risk of burns and further damage the ulcer. Wearing tight-fitting shoes (Choice B) can cause friction and pressure on the ulcer, hindering the healing process. Limiting walking (Choice D) excessively can affect circulation and delay healing. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to keep the ulcer clean and dry for optimal wound care management.
3. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing joint pain and stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help relieve the client's symptoms?
- A. Apply cold packs to the affected joints.
- B. Encourage passive range-of-motion exercises.
- C. Administer a muscle relaxant.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging passive range-of-motion exercises is the most appropriate intervention to help relieve symptoms of joint pain and stiffness in clients with severe rheumatoid arthritis. These exercises help maintain joint mobility, prevent muscle contractures, and reduce stiffness in the affected joints. Passive range-of-motion exercises can also improve circulation to the joints, promoting healing and reducing pain. Applying cold packs may help with inflammation and pain temporarily, but it does not address the long-term joint mobility issues associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Muscle relaxants are not typically indicated for managing joint pain and stiffness in rheumatoid arthritis. While nutrition is important for overall health, providing a high-calorie diet is not a direct intervention for relieving joint pain and stiffness in this context.
4. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to receive epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory result should the nurse review before administering the medication?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Creatinine clearance
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to review the hemoglobin level before administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) to assess its effectiveness in stimulating red blood cell production. Hemoglobin level is a crucial indicator to monitor in clients with chronic renal failure receiving this medication. Choice A (Blood urea nitrogen) and Choice B (Creatinine clearance) are commonly monitored in renal failure but are not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Choice D (Serum potassium) is important to monitor due to potential imbalances in renal failure, but it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.
5. What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. One of the potential side effects of spironolactone therapy is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, making it crucial for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels) are not typically associated with spironolactone use in patients with chronic heart failure.
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