a nurse is participating in the emergency care of a client who has just developed variceal bleeding what intervention should the nurse anticipate
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare professional is participating in the emergency care of a client who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the healthcare professional anticipate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for variceal bleeding is IV administration of octreotide. Octreotide helps control bleeding from varices by reducing portal blood flow and pressure, which is crucial in managing this emergency situation.

2. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low-protein diet is recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, can accumulate in the blood due to impaired liver function. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to worsening hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by cognitive and neurological disturbances. Therefore, by limiting protein intake, the production of ammonia is reduced, thereby helping to manage hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hepatic encephalopathy is not primarily related to hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, or electrolyte imbalance. The focus is on reducing ammonia levels to improve the condition.

3. Aspirin is prescribed for a 9-year-old child with rheumatic fever to control the inflammatory process, promote comfort, and reduce fever. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In children, ringing in the ears (tinnitus) can be a sign of aspirin toxicity. Aspirin toxicity can be particularly concerning in children and can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prioritize monitoring for signs of aspirin toxicity, such as tinnitus, and promptly notify the healthcare provider if such symptoms occur.

4. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.

5. A highly successful individual presents to the community mental health center complaining of sleeplessness and anxiety over their financial status. What action should the nurse take to assist this client in diminishing their anxiety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teaching the individual to limit sugar and caffeine intake is an appropriate intervention to reduce anxiety and improve sleep quality. Sugar and caffeine can exacerbate anxiety symptoms and disrupt sleep patterns. By reducing their intake, the individual may experience a decrease in anxiety levels and better sleep. Encouraging daily rituals, reinforcing financial realities, or suggesting alcohol consumption before bed are not evidence-based strategies for managing anxiety and sleeplessness.

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