Nursing Elites

1. A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. The cancer involves only the cervix.
• B. The cancer cells closely resemble normal cells.
• C. Further testing is necessary to determine the spread of the cancer.
• D. Determining the original site of the cervical cancer is challenging.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'The cancer involves only the cervix.' In staging, 'Tis' indicates cancer in situ, which means it is localized to the cervix and not invasive at this time. The differentiation of cancer cells is not part of clinical staging. Since the cancer is in situ, its origin is the cervix. Further testing is not required as the cancer has not spread beyond the cervix. Choice B is incorrect as the staging information provided does not relate to the resemblance of cancer cells to normal cells. Choice C is incorrect because further testing is not necessary as the cancer is localized. Choice D is incorrect because the staging information provided clearly indicates the site of origin as the cervix.

2. A patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Suicidal thoughts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine, the nurse should be vigilant for the potential side effect of increased risk of suicidal thoughts. Fluoxetine, like other antidepressants, may elevate the risk of suicidal thoughts, particularly during the initial phases of treatment. Monitoring the patient for any indications of heightened depression or suicidal ideation is crucial to ensure appropriate interventions are implemented promptly.

3. A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Liver toxicity
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver toxicity. Valproic acid is known to potentially cause liver toxicity. Monitoring liver function tests regularly in patients taking valproic acid is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early and prevent serious complications.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. INR of 2.5.
• B. PTT of 45 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.

5. Which regimen is most effective for treating H. pylori infection?

• A. Metronidazole, bismuth subsalicylate, amoxicillin for 14 days
• B. Clarithromycin and omeprazole for 14 days
• C. Metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days
• D. Metronidazole, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 7 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regimen C, which consists of metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days, is recommended by the FDA as an effective treatment for H. pylori infection. This regimen has been shown to have a high eradication rate and is a standard recommendation in clinical practice guidelines for the management of H. pylori-related conditions.

Similar Questions