Nursing Elites

1. A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. The cancer involves only the cervix.
• B. The cancer cells closely resemble normal cells.
• C. Further testing is necessary to determine the spread of the cancer.
• D. Determining the original site of the cervical cancer is challenging.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'The cancer involves only the cervix.' In staging, 'Tis' indicates cancer in situ, which means it is localized to the cervix and not invasive at this time. The differentiation of cancer cells is not part of clinical staging. Since the cancer is in situ, its origin is the cervix. Further testing is not required as the cancer has not spread beyond the cervix. Choice B is incorrect as the staging information provided does not relate to the resemblance of cancer cells to normal cells. Choice C is incorrect because further testing is not necessary as the cancer is localized. Choice D is incorrect because the staging information provided clearly indicates the site of origin as the cervix.

2. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding this medication?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
• C. Take the medication with meals.
• D. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with metformin. Patients should also be educated about the signs of lactic acidosis, a rare but serious side effect associated with metformin use.

3. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Relieve neuropathic pain
• B. Reduce inflammation
• C. Enhance opioid analgesia
• D. Suppress cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.

4. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?

• A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
• B. Prevent asthma attacks
• C. Suppress cough
• D. Thin respiratory secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Salmeterol is classified as a long-acting beta2-agonist, which is used to prevent asthma attacks by providing extended bronchodilation. It is not typically used for immediate relief of acute bronchospasm or for suppressing cough. Additionally, salmeterol does not have the primary purpose of thinning respiratory secretions.

5. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased blood pressure.
• B. Lowered cholesterol levels.
• C. Decreased heart rate.
• D. Improved liver function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is a medication commonly prescribed to lower cholesterol levels, which is crucial in reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events, including myocardial infarction (MI). Monitoring cholesterol levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of atorvastatin therapy and its role in preventing future cardiac complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, and improved liver function are not direct indicators of atorvastatin's effectiveness in a client with a history of MI.

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