a patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as tis n0 m0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean which response by the
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ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'The cancer involves only the cervix.' In staging, 'Tis' indicates cancer in situ, which means it is localized to the cervix and not invasive at this time. The differentiation of cancer cells is not part of clinical staging. Since the cancer is in situ, its origin is the cervix. Further testing is not required as the cancer has not spread beyond the cervix. Choice B is incorrect as the staging information provided does not relate to the resemblance of cancer cells to normal cells. Choice C is incorrect because further testing is not necessary as the cancer is localized. Choice D is incorrect because the staging information provided clearly indicates the site of origin as the cervix.

2. A client is undergoing chemotherapy and is at risk for developing thrombocytopenia. What precaution should the nurse teach the client to minimize the risk of bleeding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a soft-bristled toothbrush is essential for clients at risk of thrombocytopenia to prevent gum bleeding, as their platelet counts may be low. Vigorous brushing with a hard-bristled toothbrush can injure the gums, leading to bleeding, which can be exacerbated in clients with low platelets. Therefore, advising the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush is a crucial precaution to minimize the risk of bleeding.

3. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients for these side effects to prevent complications and provide appropriate interventions.

4. A 48-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. She has a history of ulcerative colitis. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms (fatigue, pruritus, jaundice) along with a history of ulcerative colitis and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels suggests primary sclerosing cholangitis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, such as ulcerative colitis. It is characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of the bile ducts, leading to cholestasis and elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels.

5. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.

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