Nursing Elites

1. What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Poor hygiene and dehydration
• B. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy
• C. Use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest
• D. Family history and obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.

2. In the emergency department, a nurse is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority?

• A. Below-the-knee amputation.
• B. 10 cm (4 in) laceration.
• C. Fractured tibia.
• D. 95% full-thickness body burn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A below-the-knee amputation requires immediate attention due to the risk of hemorrhage and shock, making it the highest priority. This type of injury can lead to significant blood loss and impaired perfusion, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. While a 10 cm laceration, a fractured tibia, and a 95% full-thickness body burn are serious injuries requiring urgent care, they do not pose the same immediate threat to life as a below-the-knee amputation. The laceration may require suturing to control bleeding and prevent infection, the fractured tibia needs stabilization to prevent further damage and pain, and the burn necessitates immediate management to prevent complications, but they are not as acutely life-threatening as the amputation.

3. A client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy has a urine output of 25 mL/hr. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder.
• B. Absent bowel sounds.
• C. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates a potential complication, such as hypovolemia or renal impairment, and should be reported. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder can be common after a cholecystectomy due to referred pain from the diaphragm, whereas absent bowel sounds may be expected temporarily postoperatively. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing is typical in the early postoperative period and may represent old blood or other normal discharge.

4. A client expresses doubt about the benefits of surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Ask the client to explain why they believe the surgery won't help.
• B. Comment on the client's doubt regarding the procedure's benefits.
• C. Assure the client that everything will be fine.
• D. Acknowledge the client's uncertainty about the surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the most appropriate response as it acknowledges the client's expressed uncertainty about the surgery. By acknowledging the client's feelings, the nurse validates their concerns and opens the door for further discussion. This approach can help build trust and rapport with the client. Option A focuses more on seeking justification for the client's belief rather than addressing the underlying emotion. Option B, while acknowledging doubt, does not directly address the client's feelings. Option C, although well-intentioned, dismisses the client's concerns without exploring them further.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
• B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
• C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
• D. HbA1c level less than 7%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

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