Nursing Elites

1. What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administering sedative medication
• B. Providing a low-stimulation environment
• C. Identifying the underlying cause of the delirium
• D. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.

2. Which intervention is most important for a client with chronic heart failure?

• A. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration
• B. Monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance
• C. Limit sodium intake to reduce fluid retention
• D. Restrict daily activity to prevent fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance in clients with chronic heart failure. Monitoring weight helps in detecting fluid retention or fluid loss, which is crucial in managing heart failure. Encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice A) may worsen fluid overload in heart failure patients. Limiting sodium intake (choice C) is essential but not the most important intervention compared to monitoring weight. Restricting daily activity (choice D) is not recommended as it is important for clients with heart failure to engage in appropriate levels of physical activity to maintain their overall health.

3. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is being taught about nonstress testing. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This test will determine the length of your cervix.
• B. You will have your blood pressure taken frequently during the test.
• C. You should press the handheld button when you feel your baby move.
• D. This test will take about 5 minutes to complete.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a nonstress test, the client is required to press a handheld button whenever fetal movement is felt, which is then recorded on the monitor. This action helps assess the baby's heart rate in response to its movements, providing valuable information about the baby's well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the nonstress test does not involve determining the length of the cervix, monitoring blood pressure, or being completed in 5 minutes. These aspects are not part of the nonstress testing procedure and are unrelated to the purpose of the test.

4. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid volume deficit?

• A. Encourage oral fluid intake
• B. Administer IV fluids as ordered
• C. Monitor urine output and check electrolyte levels
• D. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging oral fluid intake is a crucial nursing intervention in managing a patient with fluid volume deficit. By encouraging oral fluid intake, the patient can increase hydration levels, helping to correct the deficit. Administering IV fluids may be necessary in severe cases or when the patient is unable to tolerate oral intake. Monitoring urine output and checking electrolyte levels are essential aspects of assessing fluid volume status, but they are not direct interventions for correcting fluid volume deficit. Monitoring skin turgor and capillary refill are important assessments for fluid volume status but are not direct management strategies.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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