ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. A client diagnosed with dementia wanders the halls of the locked nursing unit during the day. To ensure the client's safety while walking in the halls, the nurse should do which of the following?
- A. Administer PRN haloperidol (Haldol) to decrease the need to walk
- B. Assess the client's gait for steadiness
- C. Restrain the client in a geriatric chair
- D. Administer PRN lorazepam (Ativan) to provide sedation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the client's gait for steadiness is the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of a client with dementia while walking. This allows the nurse to identify any issues that may increase the risk of falls or accidents. Administering PRN haloperidol or lorazepam is not indicated as the first-line approach in managing wandering behavior and can have adverse effects like increased risk of falls, confusion, or oversedation. Restraint use should be avoided whenever possible, as it can lead to physical and psychological harm to the client.
2. After sustaining a closed head injury and numerous lacerations and abrasions to the face and neck, a five-year-old child is admitted to the emergency room. The client is unconscious and has minimal response to noxious stimuli. Which of the following assessments, if observed by the nurse three hours after admission, should be reported to the physician?
- A. The client has slight edema of the eyelids
- B. There is clear fluid draining from the client's right ear
- C. There is some bleeding from the child's lacerations
- D. The client withdraws in response to painful stimuli
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clear fluid draining from the ear can indicate cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a serious concern after a head injury. This leakage can signify a skull fracture or damage to the meninges, potentially leading to infection. Therefore, it should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are typical findings after head trauma and are not as urgent as the presence of clear fluid draining from the ear.
3. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client undergoing radiation therapy for cancer. Which of the following instructions should the nurse reinforce with the client?
- A. Apply sunscreen before going outside
- B. Avoid using perfumed lotions
- C. Massage the area daily
- D. Take vitamin supplements with food
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should reinforce with the client undergoing radiation therapy is to avoid using perfumed lotions. This is essential to reduce the risk of skin irritation, as perfumed lotions can exacerbate skin reactions during radiation therapy. Applying sunscreen before going outside is generally a good practice but not specifically related to radiation therapy. Massaging the area daily is contraindicated during radiation therapy as it can further irritate the skin. Taking vitamin supplements with food is important for overall health but is not a specific instruction related to radiation therapy.
4. What are the key signs of respiratory distress?
- A. Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles
- B. Decreased respiratory rate and cyanosis
- C. Cyanosis and use of accessory muscles
- D. Altered mental status and bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles are key signs of respiratory distress. When a person is experiencing respiratory distress, their respiratory rate typically increases as the body tries to compensate for the inadequate oxygenation. Additionally, the use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is working harder to breathe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the key signs of respiratory distress. A decreased respiratory rate, cyanosis, altered mental status, and bradycardia are not typical signs of respiratory distress.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Sodium
- B. Glucose
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium depletion due to increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium (choice A) levels are not typically affected by furosemide. Glucose (choice B) monitoring is important with other medications like corticosteroids but is not directly related to furosemide use. Calcium (choice D) levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide.
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