Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with dementia wanders the halls of the locked nursing unit during the day. To ensure the client's safety while walking in the halls, the nurse should do which of the following?

• A. Administer PRN haloperidol (Haldol) to decrease the need to walk
• B. Assess the client's gait for steadiness
• C. Restrain the client in a geriatric chair
• D. Administer PRN lorazepam (Ativan) to provide sedation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's gait for steadiness is the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of a client with dementia while walking. This allows the nurse to identify any issues that may increase the risk of falls or accidents. Administering PRN haloperidol or lorazepam is not indicated as the first-line approach in managing wandering behavior and can have adverse effects like increased risk of falls, confusion, or oversedation. Restraint use should be avoided whenever possible, as it can lead to physical and psychological harm to the client.

2. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client with pneumonia who had new onset of confusion
• B. A client with diabetes who had low blood sugar overnight
• C. A client with a leg fracture who needs pain medication
• D. A client whose urinary output was 100 mL for the past 12 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New confusion in a client with pneumonia could indicate hypoxia or a worsening condition, requiring immediate attention. Option B, a client with diabetes having low blood sugar overnight, is a concerning condition but not as urgent as potential hypoxia. Option C, a client with a leg fracture needing pain medication, and option D, a client with decreased urinary output, are important but do not take precedence over addressing a potentially critical respiratory issue.

3. After abdominal surgery, a client has a nasogastric tube attached to low suctioning. The client becomes nauseated, and the nurse observes a decrease in the flow of gastric secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions would be MOST appropriate?

• A. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with distilled water
• B. Aspirate the gastric contents with a syringe
• C. Administer an antiemetic medication
• D. Insert a new nasogastric tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention when a client with a nasogastric tube experiences nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions is to aspirate the gastric contents with a syringe. This action helps relieve nausea by removing excess fluid and gas. Option A, irrigating the nasogastric tube with distilled water, is not indicated as it does not address the underlying issue of decreased gastric secretions. Option C, administering an antiemetic medication, may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the mechanical issue of decreased flow in the nasogastric tube. Option D, inserting a new nasogastric tube, is not necessary unless there are specific complications or obstructions in the current tube.

4. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

5. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?

• A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
• B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
• C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
• D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.

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