ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. A client diagnosed with dementia wanders the halls of the locked nursing unit during the day. To ensure the client's safety while walking in the halls, the nurse should do which of the following?
- A. Administer PRN haloperidol (Haldol) to decrease the need to walk
- B. Assess the client's gait for steadiness
- C. Restrain the client in a geriatric chair
- D. Administer PRN lorazepam (Ativan) to provide sedation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the client's gait for steadiness is the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of a client with dementia while walking. This allows the nurse to identify any issues that may increase the risk of falls or accidents. Administering PRN haloperidol or lorazepam is not indicated as the first-line approach in managing wandering behavior and can have adverse effects like increased risk of falls, confusion, or oversedation. Restraint use should be avoided whenever possible, as it can lead to physical and psychological harm to the client.
2. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Limit potassium and phosphorus intake
- C. Increase intake of protein-rich foods
- D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.
3. When caring for a client experiencing delirium, which of the following is essential?
- A. Controlling behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics
- B. Identifying the underlying causative condition or illness
- C. Manipulating the environment to increase orientation
- D. Decreasing or discontinuing all previously prescribed medications
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing delirium, it is essential to identify the underlying causative condition or illness. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medication side effects, dehydration, or underlying health conditions. By identifying the root cause, appropriate treatment can be provided. Controlling behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics (Choice A) may be considered in some cases but is not the primary essential step. Manipulating the environment to increase orientation (Choice C) can help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause. Decreasing or discontinuing all previously prescribed medications (Choice D) should only be done under medical supervision, as some medications may be necessary for the client's well-being.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who is at risk for developing osteoporosis. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Walk for at least 30 minutes each day
- B. Avoid sunlight exposure
- C. Take vitamin B12 supplements
- D. Increase calcium intake to 1,500 mg per day
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase calcium intake to 1,500 mg per day. Adequate calcium intake is essential for maintaining bone density and reducing the risk of osteoporosis. Walking for at least 30 minutes each day is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly related to osteoporosis prevention as calcium intake. Sunlight exposure is important for vitamin D synthesis, which is necessary for calcium absorption, so avoiding sunlight exposure would not be recommended. Vitamin B12 supplements are not directly related to bone health or osteoporosis prevention, so this would not be the most appropriate recommendation.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to discharge a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following vaccines should the professional plan to administer?
- A. Varicella
- B. Influenza
- C. Hepatitis B
- D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Immunocompromised clients have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for these individuals to help prevent pneumococcal infections, which can be severe and life-threatening. Varicella, Influenza, and Hepatitis B vaccines are not specifically indicated for immunocompromised clients. Varicella contains a live virus that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Influenza is generally recommended for all individuals over 6 months of age but does not have the same priority as the pneumococcal vaccine for immunocompromised clients. Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for preventing Hepatitis B infection but is not directly related to the increased infection risk faced by immunocompromised clients.
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