ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. What are the risk factors for developing hypertension?
- A. High sodium diet and lack of physical activity
- B. Low potassium intake and excessive alcohol consumption
- C. Frequent exercise and low cholesterol diet
- D. Smoking and family history
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: High sodium diet and lack of physical activity. These are established risk factors for developing hypertension as they contribute to elevated blood pressure. Choice B, low potassium intake and excessive alcohol consumption, may also impact blood pressure but are not as strongly associated with hypertension as high sodium intake and lack of physical activity. Choice C, frequent exercise and a low cholesterol diet, are actually beneficial for reducing the risk of hypertension. Choice D, smoking and family history, are more closely linked to other health conditions such as cardiovascular diseases, rather than being primary risk factors for hypertension.
2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Dry mouth.
- C. Sedation.
- D. Shuffling gait.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.
3. A client with newly diagnosed type I diabetes mellitus is being seen by the home health nurse. The physician orders include: 1,200-calorie ADA diet, 15 units of NPH insulin before breakfast, and check blood sugar qid. When the nurse visits the client at 5 PM, the nurse observes the man performing a blood sugar analysis. The result is 50 mg/dL. The nurse would expect the client to be
- A. Confused with cold, clammy skin and a pulse of 110
- B. Lethargic with hot, dry skin and rapid, deep respirations
- C. Alert and cooperative with a BP of 130/80 and respirations of 12
- D. Short of breath, with distended neck veins and a bounding pulse of 96
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Low blood sugar levels (50 mg/dL) typically cause confusion, cold clammy skin, and an increased pulse (tachycardia). Option A correctly describes the expected symptoms of hypoglycemia, which include confusion due to the brain's inadequate glucose supply, cold and clammy skin due to sympathetic nervous system activation, and an increased pulse (110 bpm) as the body reacts to low blood sugar levels. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Lethargy, hot dry skin, rapid deep respirations, normal vital signs, shortness of breath, distended neck veins, and bounding pulse are more indicative of other conditions or normal physiological responses, not hypoglycemia.
4. What is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Provide oxygen
- C. Monitor airway
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases of anaphylaxis, all of the listed interventions are crucial for effective management. Administering epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction rapidly. Providing oxygen ensures adequate oxygenation to vital organs, and monitoring the airway is essential to prevent obstruction and maintain a clear air passage. Therefore, all three interventions are necessary in managing anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient to address all aspects of anaphylaxis, making the comprehensive approach of 'All of the above' the correct answer.
5. Which nursing action is best when managing a client with severe anxiety?
- A. Maintain a calm manner
- B. Help the client identify thoughts prior to the anxiety
- C. Administer anti-anxiety medication
- D. Initiate seclusion if anxiety escalates
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a calm manner. When managing a client with severe anxiety, the nurse's calm presence can help the client feel more secure and reduce their anxiety levels. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment. Helping the client identify thoughts prior to anxiety (choice B) may be beneficial in cognitive-behavioral interventions but may not be the initial best action for severe anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice C) should be done by a healthcare provider's order and is not the first-line intervention for managing severe anxiety. Initiating seclusion (choice D) should only be considered as a last resort if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others, as it can further escalate anxiety and should not be the initial action.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access