ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods
- B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
- C. Encourage increased protein intake
- D. Increase fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.
2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following images should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing ptosis?
- A. Drooping eyelids
- B. Unequal pupils
- C. Facial twitching
- D. Facial droop
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Drooping eyelids.' Ptosis, characterized by drooping of the eyelid, is a classic symptom seen in myasthenia gravis. This occurs due to muscle weakness, particularly in the muscles that control eyelid movement. Choice B, 'Unequal pupils,' is not associated with ptosis and may indicate other neurological issues. Choice C, 'Facial twitching,' is not a typical sign of ptosis but could be related to other conditions like nerve irritation. Choice D, 'Facial droop,' is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the facial nerve, like Bell's palsy, and is not a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis.
3. A nurse at a long-term care facility is part of a team preparing a report on the quality of care at the facility. Which of the following information should the nurse recommend including in the report to demonstrate improvement in care quality?
- A. Increased admissions
- B. 12% fewer urinary tract infections
- C. Increased mortality rate
- D. No changes in staffing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: '12% fewer urinary tract infections.' Tracking infections, such as UTIs, is crucial in assessing care quality improvements as the reduction in infections indicates better infection control practices and overall quality of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased admissions (Choice A) do not directly reflect improvements in care quality. Increased mortality rate (Choice C) is a negative outcome and demonstrates a decline in care quality. No changes in staffing (Choice D) do not provide direct evidence of care quality improvements.
4. What are the key interventions for managing a patient with asthma?
- A. Administer bronchodilators and monitor oxygen levels
- B. Encourage deep breathing exercises
- C. Provide corticosteroids and monitor for respiratory distress
- D. Provide antihistamines and monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer bronchodilators and monitor oxygen levels. Asthma management involves using bronchodilators to help open the airways and improve breathing. Monitoring oxygen levels is essential to ensure the patient is getting enough oxygen. Choice B, encouraging deep breathing exercises, can be helpful for some respiratory conditions but is not a key intervention for managing an acute asthma attack. Choice C, providing corticosteroids and monitoring for respiratory distress, is important for long-term asthma management and severe exacerbations but is not the immediate key intervention during an acute attack. Choice D, providing antihistamines and monitoring blood pressure, is not typically indicated for asthma management as asthma is primarily an airway disease, not a histamine-mediated condition.
5. Which of the following is a key consideration when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer?
- A. Cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing
- B. Perform a wound culture before applying ointment
- C. Cleanse the wound with alcohol
- D. Cover the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying ointment is crucial when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer. This step helps identify the presence of any infection, allowing for appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because covering the wound with a dry, sterile dressing may not address potential infections. Choice C is incorrect as cleansing the wound with alcohol can be too harsh and drying to the surrounding skin. Choice D is incorrect because covering the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing is not typically recommended for pressure ulcers, as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during removal.
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