which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with dehydration?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dehydration management involves a comprehensive approach that includes monitoring fluid intake to assess the severity of dehydration, encouraging oral rehydration to replenish fluids orally if the patient can tolerate it, and administering IV fluids in severe cases where oral intake is insufficient. Choosing just one of these options may not address the diverse needs of patients with dehydration. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate response as it encompasses the various strategies required for effective dehydration management.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should be addressed immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and agitation in clients with dementia should be addressed immediately as they can indicate underlying causes such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs. Addressing these symptoms promptly can help prevent the escalation of behavioral issues and improve the client's quality of life. While frequent episodes of wandering at night, mild confusion during the day, and incontinence are also important issues to address in clients with dementia, restlessness and agitation usually require immediate attention to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

5. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse's immediate action should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV in place can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (choice A) may not address the root cause and delay the necessary intervention. Applying a cold compress (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to remove the source of inflammation. Increasing the IV flow rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate the phlebitis by causing more irritation to the vein.

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