which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.

2. What is the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient is experiencing a seizure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider is to protect the patient's head. This helps prevent injury, especially considering the involuntary movements and potential thrashing associated with seizures. Restraint should be avoided as it can lead to further injury or distress for the patient. Inserting an airway is not recommended during an active seizure as the patient's airway may not be obstructed, and it could pose a risk of injury. Giving the patient water during a seizure is also not advisable as there is a risk of aspiration. Therefore, the priority is to ensure the patient's safety by protecting their head.

3. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who is to undergo radiation therapy for breast cancer about potential adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect that the nurse should include in the teaching is fatigue. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, particularly with prolonged treatment. Constipation, hair loss, and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices. Fatigue can significantly impact a patient's quality of life during treatment and should be addressed proactively by healthcare providers.

5. What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.

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