ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is experiencing a situational crisis following the loss of a job. The client states, 'I don't think I can go through this again.' Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Determine if the client is experiencing psychotic thinking
- B. Determine the client's support system
- C. Ask how the client copes with stress
- D. Assess the client's vital signs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority is to determine if the client is experiencing psychotic thinking or suicidal ideation. In this situation, the nurse needs to assess if the client is having distorted thoughts or losing touch with reality, which could pose an immediate risk to the client's safety. While determining the client's support system, asking how the client copes with stress, and assessing vital signs are important aspects of care, they are not the priority when there is a concern about potential psychotic thinking or suicidal ideation.
2. A client who decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries is an example of what principle?
- A. Fidelity
- B. Autonomy
- C. Justice
- D. Non-maleficence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Autonomy. Autonomy in healthcare refers to respecting a patient's right to make decisions about their own care, even if those decisions may not align with healthcare providers' recommendations. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries demonstrates his autonomy in making choices about his own health. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to the concept of keeping promises and being faithful to commitments, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, Justice, involves fairness and equal treatment in healthcare, which is not the primary principle at play when a patient exercises autonomy. Choice D, Non-maleficence, relates to the principle of doing no harm, which is important but not directly relevant to the client's decision to refuse surgery.
3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Monitor ECG for dysrhythmias
- B. Monitor urine output
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor various parameters to ensure patient safety. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any potential dysrhythmias that may occur due to potassium imbalances. Monitoring urine output is important as potassium levels can affect renal function. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the IV potassium therapy. Therefore, all the options - monitoring ECG for dysrhythmias, urine output, and serum potassium levels - are necessary when administering IV potassium, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as they each address different aspects of patient monitoring when receiving IV potassium.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
- B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
- C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.
5. What are the signs and symptoms of fluid overload?
- A. Edema, shortness of breath, weight gain
- B. High blood pressure and jugular venous distention
- C. Low blood pressure and cyanosis
- D. Tachycardia and dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms of fluid overload include edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain. Edema is the abnormal accumulation of fluid causing swelling, shortness of breath can occur due to fluid accumulating in the lungs, and weight gain is often seen as a result of excess fluid retention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because high blood pressure and jugular venous distention are more indicative of conditions like heart failure, while low blood pressure and cyanosis are seen in conditions like shock or poor perfusion. Tachycardia and dizziness are not typical signs of fluid overload.
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