Nursing Elites

1. What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?

• A. Assess facial drooping
• B. Monitor speech difficulties
• C. Evaluate arm weakness
• D. Check for time of onset of symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula
• B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position
• D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to encourage pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve oxygenation by preventing airway collapse, slowing down the breathing rate, and promoting better gas exchange. Administering oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula is not the first-line intervention as it can cause oxygen toxicity in COPD patients. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position may improve ventilation but does not specifically address the breathing technique required for COPD. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing is generally not recommended for clients with COPD as it can lead to air trapping and increased work of breathing.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

4. A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions with the parent of an infant who has rotavirus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid feeding my baby for 12 hours
• B. I will apply diaper cream during each diaper change
• C. I will give my baby water between feedings
• D. I will apply warm compresses for my baby's comfort

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Applying diaper cream during each diaper change is important to prevent skin breakdown in infants with rotavirus. Rotavirus can cause diarrhea, which can lead to skin irritation. Avoiding feeding the baby for 12 hours (choice A) can lead to dehydration and is not appropriate. Giving water between feedings (choice C) can further contribute to dehydration. Applying warm compresses (choice D) may provide comfort but does not address the specific issue of preventing skin breakdown associated with rotavirus.

5. A nurse is reviewing the record of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Wandering at night
• B. A serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL
• C. Urinary incontinence
• D. Restlessness and agitation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restlessness and agitation in clients with dementia could indicate a worsening condition and should be prioritized. While wandering at night and urinary incontinence are common issues in dementia patients, restlessness and agitation can signal acute distress or an unmet need, requiring immediate attention. Monitoring serum albumin levels is important for overall health but would not be the priority when assessing a client with dementia.

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