what should a nurse assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.

2. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to ask the client directly what they are hearing. This approach helps the nurse gain insight into the client's experience, establish effective communication, and provide appropriate support. Encouraging the client to lie down in a quiet room (Choice A) may not address the hallucinations directly. Telling the client that the voices are not real (Choice C) can be invalidating and may lead to further distress. Providing headphones for music (Choice D) may not be effective in addressing the client's hallucinations.

3. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with COPD?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen and provide breathing exercises. These interventions are essential in managing COPD as they help improve lung function and oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect as suctioning airway secretions and encouraging coughing are not typically indicated for COPD patients. Choice C is incorrect as while administering bronchodilators is common in COPD treatment, monitoring oxygen saturation alone is not a comprehensive intervention. Choice D is incorrect as restricting fluids is not a standard intervention for COPD, and encouraging mobility, although beneficial, is not as directly related to managing COPD symptoms as administering oxygen and providing breathing exercises.

4. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

5. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.

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