ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Administer potassium supplements and monitor ECG
- B. Provide a high-sodium diet and monitor for hypertension
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness and provide dietary education
- D. Administer diuretics and provide oral fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with hypokalemia is to administer potassium supplements and monitor the ECG. Potassium supplements help correct the low potassium levels in the body, while ECG monitoring is essential to detect any cardiac arrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B is incorrect because a high-sodium diet would worsen hypokalemia by further depleting potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as it only focuses on monitoring symptoms and providing dietary education, but does not address the immediate need to correct potassium levels. Choice D is also incorrect as administering diuretics would exacerbate hypokalemia by increasing potassium loss.
2. The nurse is making a home visit with a client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The client recently started on lorazepam (Ativan) due to increased anxiety. The nurse is cautioning the family about the use of lorazepam (Ativan). The nurse should instruct the family to report which of the following significant side effects to the healthcare provider?
- A. Paradoxical excitement
- B. Headache
- C. Slowing of reflexes
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, paradoxical excitement. Lorazepam can cause an unexpected response of paradoxical excitement, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. This reaction is characterized by increased anxiety, restlessness, and agitation instead of the expected calming effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because headache, slowing of reflexes, and fatigue are more common side effects of lorazepam and may not warrant immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.
3. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with a pressure ulcer who has a low albumin level?
- A. Increase protein intake to improve healing
- B. Consult with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet
- C. Provide nutritional supplements
- D. Increase IV fluid intake to improve hydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Consulting with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a pressure ulcer and low albumin level. This intervention can help address the client's poor nutritional status, support wound healing, and specifically target the low albumin level. Increasing protein intake alone (Choice A) may not be sufficient without proper guidance. Providing nutritional supplements (Choice C) can be beneficial but consulting with a dietitian for a personalized plan is more effective in this case. Increasing IV fluid intake (Choice D) primarily targets hydration and may not directly address the underlying issue of low albumin and poor nutritional status.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
- B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
- C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.
5. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize for a client with dementia who is at risk of falls?
- A. Use restraints to prevent the client from leaving the bed
- B. Use a bed exit alarm system to notify staff when the client attempts to leave the bed
- C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
- D. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using a bed exit alarm system is a non-restrictive intervention that alerts staff when the client tries to leave the bed, promoting safety and preventing falls. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can have adverse effects and should be avoided whenever possible. Choice C is not the priority for a client at risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls without proper supervision. Choice D is also not recommended as raising all four side rails can lead to restraint and should be used cautiously, if at all. Therefore, the best option is to use a bed exit alarm system to ensure the client's safety while allowing some freedom of movement.
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