Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is contributing to the plan of care for a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional recommend?

• A. Suction the airway every hour
• B. Keep the head of the bed at 30 degrees
• C. Change the ventilator tubing every day
• D. Administer a bronchodilator every 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the head of the bed at 30 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of aspiration and improves ventilation. Suctioning the airway every hour may lead to mucosal damage and increase the risk of infection. Changing the ventilator tubing every day is not necessary unless there are specific indications to do so, as it can increase the risk of contamination and infection. Administering a bronchodilator every 2 hours is not a standard practice and should be done based on the client's individualized treatment plan.

2. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
• C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
• D. Frequent turning and repositioning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

3. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to bear down
• B. Apply the external fetal monitor
• C. Provide the client with fluids
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.

4. A nurse is delegating the ambulation of a client who had knee arthroplasty 5 days ago to an AP. Which of the following information should the nurse share with the AP?

• A. The roommate is up independently
• B. The client ambulates with his slippers on over his antiembolic stockings
• C. The client uses a front-wheeled walker when ambulating
• D. The client had pain meds 30 minutes ago

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. After knee arthroplasty, it is essential for the client to use a front-wheeled walker when ambulating to ensure stability and prevent falls. Sharing this information with the assistive personnel (AP) is crucial for the client's safety and proper rehabilitation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the roommate's independence, the client's footwear over stockings, and the timing of pain medication administration are not directly related to the safe ambulation of a client post-knee arthroplasty.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

Similar Questions