Nursing Elites

1. A client who decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries is an example of what principle?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Non-maleficence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Autonomy. Autonomy in healthcare refers to respecting a patient's right to make decisions about their own care, even if those decisions may not align with healthcare providers' recommendations. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries demonstrates his autonomy in making choices about his own health. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to the concept of keeping promises and being faithful to commitments, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, Justice, involves fairness and equal treatment in healthcare, which is not the primary principle at play when a patient exercises autonomy. Choice D, Non-maleficence, relates to the principle of doing no harm, which is important but not directly relevant to the client's decision to refuse surgery.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has peripheral arterial disease (PAD) about exercise recommendations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Exercise to the point of pain
• B. Stop exercising if pain occurs
• C. Exercise only once per week
• D. Avoid walking to prevent pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Stop exercising if pain occurs.' In peripheral arterial disease (PAD), it is crucial to avoid exercising to the point of pain as this may worsen the condition and lead to complications. Exercising to the point of pain can result in inadequate blood flow to the extremities, causing further damage. By stopping exercise if pain occurs, the client can prevent exacerbating their condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because exercising to the point of pain, limiting exercise to once per week, and avoiding walking altogether are not recommended strategies for managing PAD and could potentially harm the client.

3. A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Increase the suction setting on the ventilator
• B. Suction the tracheostomy
• C. Notify the physician immediately
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a tracheostomy exhibiting signs of respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. This helps clear the airway and improve breathing. Increasing the suction setting on the ventilator is not appropriate as the issue may be related to secretions that need to be directly removed. Notifying the physician should come after providing immediate nursing interventions. Encouraging deep breathing exercises is not suitable when the client is in respiratory distress and needs prompt intervention.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
• B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
• C. A hemoglobin A1c of 6%
• D. A fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which may necessitate insulin adjustment to better control the client's blood sugar levels. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL (choice A) is within the normal range, a hemoglobin A1c of 6% (choice C) is indicative of good long-term blood sugar control, and a fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL (choice D) is also within the normal range. Therefore, these findings do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Glucose
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium depletion due to increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium (choice A) levels are not typically affected by furosemide. Glucose (choice B) monitoring is important with other medications like corticosteroids but is not directly related to furosemide use. Calcium (choice D) levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide.

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