ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration on the left thumb due to a cut from a rusty metal can
- B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time
- C. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain
- D. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.
2. What is the first step in assessing a patient with suspected stroke?
- A. Check for facial droop
- B. Assess speech clarity
- C. Perform a neurological assessment
- D. Call for emergency assistance
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to call for emergency assistance (Option D) when assessing a patient with suspected stroke. Time is crucial in stroke management, and activating emergency services promptly can ensure timely access to specialized care such as stroke units and treatments like thrombolytic therapy. Checking for facial droop (Option A), assessing speech clarity (Option B), and performing a neurological assessment (Option C) are important steps in evaluating a stroke but should follow the immediate action of calling for emergency assistance. These initial assessments can help confirm the suspicion of a stroke and provide valuable information to healthcare providers when they arrive. However, the priority is to ensure the patient receives appropriate care without delay by activating emergency services.
3. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
- A. Hand hygiene
- B. Wearing personal protective equipment
- C. Sterilizing equipment
- D. Isolating infected patients
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hand hygiene is considered the most effective method to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Proper hand hygiene, including washing hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer, is crucial in reducing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another. While wearing personal protective equipment, sterilizing equipment, and isolating infected patients are also important infection control measures, they are not as universally effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections. Personal protective equipment can prevent contact with infectious materials, sterilizing equipment reduces the risk of contamination, and isolating infected patients helps prevent the spread of specific infections, but they are more targeted approaches compared to the broad and essential practice of hand hygiene.
4. What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with kidney disease?
- A. Monitor blood pressure and provide dietary education
- B. Monitor urine output and provide IV fluids
- C. Administer diuretics and restrict fluid intake
- D. Monitor for cardiac arrhythmias and provide dialysis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nurses play a crucial role in managing patients with kidney disease by monitoring blood pressure and providing essential dietary education. This helps in maintaining kidney function and overall health. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring urine output and providing IV fluids are tasks usually performed by healthcare providers such as physicians or specialized staff. Choice C is incorrect as administering diuretics and restricting fluid intake are typically prescribed by a physician, and nurses may assist in monitoring the effects. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for cardiac arrhythmias and providing dialysis are tasks that are usually overseen by healthcare providers with specialized training in cardiology and nephrology.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
- C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.
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