ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Client reports nausea.
- B. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr.
- C. Oxygen saturation 90%.
- D. Respiratory rate 14/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.
2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who delivered a full-term newborn 16 hours ago. The nurse notes excessive lochia discharge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer pain medication
- B. Perform a fundal massage for the client
- C. Check the baby's heart rate
- D. Apply an ice pack
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when noting excessive lochia discharge in a client who delivered a full-term newborn 16 hours ago is to perform a fundal massage. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which in turn reduces bleeding in postpartum clients. Administering pain medication (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as addressing the excessive lochia discharge is crucial to prevent complications. Checking the baby's heart rate (Choice C) is important but not the first action to manage the mother's condition. Applying an ice pack (Choice D) is not appropriate for managing excessive lochia discharge; fundal massage is the initial intervention to address this issue effectively.
3. A client receiving chemotherapy for cancer has developed stomatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Provide lemon-glycerin swabs
- B. Encourage the client to eat soft foods
- C. Avoid using toothpaste
- D. Instruct the client to use a mouthwash containing alcohol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, is to encourage the client to eat soft foods. Soft foods help prevent further irritation to the mouth. Providing lemon-glycerin swabs (choice A) can be too harsh and irritating to the mouth. Avoiding toothpaste (choice C) is not necessary unless it contains harsh ingredients that can further irritate the mouth. Instructing the client to use a mouthwash containing alcohol (choice D) is contraindicated as alcohol-containing mouthwashes can be too harsh and drying for clients with stomatitis.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client is anxious about the procedure.
- B. The client has not eaten for 8 hours.
- C. The client has a reported allergy to shellfish.
- D. The client has a platelet count of 100,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is low and increases the risk of bleeding during the bronchoscopy. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this situation. Anxiety about the procedure is common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Not eating for 8 hours is a standard pre-procedure requirement to prevent aspiration during sedation. A reported allergy to shellfish is important to note but is not directly related to the risk of complications during a bronchoscopy.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?
- A. Decerebrate posturing.
- B. Hypervigilance.
- C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.
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