a nurse is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provid
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

2. What are the primary goals of post-operative care for a patient who has undergone abdominal surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain Management. After abdominal surgery, one of the primary goals of post-operative care is to manage the patient's pain effectively to ensure their comfort and promote recovery. While wound care, prevention of complications, and ensuring digestive function are also important aspects of post-operative care, pain management takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's well-being and recovery process.

3. What are the differences between viral and bacterial infections?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Viral infections often cause fatigue and body aches, while bacterial infections are more likely to cause high fever and localized pain. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the symptoms commonly associated with viral infections. Bacterial infections, on the other hand, typically present with fever and localized pain, as stated in choice B. Choice C is incorrect as viral infections do not respond to antibiotics, while choice D is inaccurate because bacterial infections may require antibiotic treatment and are not always self-limiting.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

5. What is the best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, when the client expresses concern about fatigue?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, especially when the client expresses concern about fatigue, is to gradually resume self-care tasks while focusing on rest periods. This approach allows the client to build confidence in managing their self-care activities while also addressing the issue of fatigue. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on asking for assistance rather than promoting self-care. Choice C is inappropriate as it suggests delegating the client's self-care tasks to assistive personnel instead of empowering the client. Choice D is incorrect as it can lead to deconditioning and is not conducive to the client's recovery process.

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