Nursing Elites

1. What are the nursing interventions for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?

• A. Monitor INR levels and check for bleeding
• B. Administer antiplatelet therapy
• C. Check for signs of DVT and provide anticoagulation
• D. Administer aspirin and monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy is to monitor INR levels and check for signs of bleeding. Monitoring the INR levels helps assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulant therapy, while checking for bleeding is essential due to the increased risk associated with anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect as antiplatelet therapy is not the standard treatment for patients on anticoagulant therapy. Choice C is incorrect as providing additional anticoagulation is not a direct nursing intervention in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect because administering aspirin, an antiplatelet medication, along with anticoagulants can increase the risk of bleeding and is generally avoided.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with a suspected infection?

• A. Monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells
• B. Monitor blood pressure and check for fever
• C. Assess for changes in mental status and monitor urine output
• D. Administer antibiotics and monitor for changes in mental status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with a suspected infection, it is crucial to monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells. Elevated temperature indicates a potential infection, and increased white blood cells are a sign of inflammation and the body's response to an infection. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) and checking for fever (choice B) are not as specific indicators of infection as monitoring temperature and white blood cell count. Assessing changes in mental status and monitoring urine output (choice C) are important aspects of patient assessment but may not directly indicate a suspected infection. Administering antibiotics (choice D) should only be done after a confirmed diagnosis of a bacterial infection, as unnecessary antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other adverse effects.

3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?

• A. Monitor ECG for dysrhythmias
• B. Monitor urine output
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor various parameters to ensure patient safety. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any potential dysrhythmias that may occur due to potassium imbalances. Monitoring urine output is important as potassium levels can affect renal function. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the IV potassium therapy. Therefore, all the options - monitoring ECG for dysrhythmias, urine output, and serum potassium levels - are necessary when administering IV potassium, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as they each address different aspects of patient monitoring when receiving IV potassium.

4. A client with dementia is at risk of falls. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure safety?

• A. Use restraints to prevent the client from leaving the bed
• B. Use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed
• C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
• D. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia at risk of falls is to use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed. This intervention helps prevent falls while still allowing some freedom of movement. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to complications and is considered a form of restraint which should be avoided. Choice C is not suitable for a client at high risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls. Choice D is not recommended as raising all four side rails can be considered a form of physical restraint and may not be the best approach to prevent falls in a client with dementia.

5. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?

• A. Systolic: Reduced ejection fraction; Diastolic: Preserved ejection fraction
• B. Systolic: Preserved ejection fraction; Diastolic: Reduced ejection fraction
• C. Systolic: Right-sided heart failure; Diastolic: Left-sided heart failure
• D. Systolic: Pulmonary congestion; Diastolic: Systemic congestion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.

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