which of the following is the priority for a client with dehydration
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1. What is the priority for a client with dehydration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority for a client with dehydration is to monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances. Dehydration can lead to electrolyte disturbances, which can have serious consequences. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the root cause of dehydration. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial, but monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in managing dehydration. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is important in severe cases of dehydration, but monitoring electrolytes should come first to assess the extent of the imbalance and guide fluid replacement therapy effectively.

2. What is the first step in managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.

3. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a potential myocardial infarction (MI)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. When assessing a patient with a potential myocardial infarction, it is crucial to assess symptoms, monitor vital signs like blood pressure and heart rate, and order an electrocardiogram (ECG) to evaluate for cardiac abnormalities. Choice B is incorrect because administering medications should be based on the findings of the assessment and diagnostic tests, not administered indiscriminately. Choice C is incorrect because the administration of thrombolytics and oxygen therapy should be based on specific criteria and should be done in a controlled setting. Choice D is incorrect as educating the patient on lifestyle changes is important for prevention but is not the immediate priority when managing a potential myocardial infarction.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should clarify prescription B, Acetaminophen 650 mg PO BID, with the provider. When a patient is NPO and receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube, medications administered orally may be contraindicated due to the risk of aspiration. Therefore, Acetaminophen should be confirmed for safety in this situation. The other options (Metoprolol ER 50 mg via NG tube BID, Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily, Ondansetron 4 mg IV push PRN) are appropriate and do not need clarification in this scenario.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

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