ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. What is the priority for a client with dehydration?
- A. Administer antiemetics to prevent nausea
- B. Monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances
- C. Administer oral rehydration solutions
- D. Administer intravenous fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority for a client with dehydration is to monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances. Dehydration can lead to electrolyte disturbances, which can have serious consequences. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the root cause of dehydration. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial, but monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in managing dehydration. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is important in severe cases of dehydration, but monitoring electrolytes should come first to assess the extent of the imbalance and guide fluid replacement therapy effectively.
2. Which of the following is a key consideration when caring for a client with heart failure on fluid restriction?
- A. Encourage the client to drink more fluids to stay hydrated
- B. Weigh the client daily to monitor fluid status
- C. Limit the client's intake of fruits and vegetables
- D. Monitor the client's fluid intake only during meals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client with heart failure on fluid restriction, weighing the client daily is crucial to monitor fluid balance accurately. This helps healthcare providers assess if the client is retaining excess fluids, which can worsen heart failure. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (choice A) contradicts the goal of fluid restriction. Limiting intake of fruits and vegetables (choice C) is not a specific guideline for managing fluid restriction in heart failure. Monitoring fluid intake only during meals (choice D) is insufficient as fluid balance needs to be monitored consistently throughout the day.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Client reports nausea.
- B. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr.
- C. Oxygen saturation 90%.
- D. Respiratory rate 14/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.
4. A client with diabetes is being discharged. What is an essential teaching point?
- A. Monitor blood sugar levels once a week
- B. Instruct the client to administer insulin before meals
- C. Teach the client to exercise regularly to maintain glucose control
- D. Administer oral hypoglycemics as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Instructing the client to administer insulin before meals is a crucial teaching point for a client with diabetes. This action ensures proper glucose management by helping to control blood sugar levels. Monitoring blood sugar levels once a week (Choice A) may not be frequent enough to manage diabetes effectively. While regular exercise (Choice C) is beneficial for glucose control, the immediate administration of insulin is more critical at the time of discharge. Administering oral hypoglycemics as needed (Choice D) is inappropriate as it does not address the need for insulin administration for a client being discharged.
5. A client who has a new prosthesis for an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg needs teaching on its use. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Wear the prosthesis for 2 hours at a time
- B. Remove the prosthesis every other day
- C. Apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day
- D. Elevate the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day. This helps the client adjust to and maintain mobility. Choice A is incorrect because wearing the prosthesis for only 2 hours at a time may not be sufficient for proper adjustment. Choice B is incorrect as removing the prosthesis every other day is not a standard practice and may hinder the client's mobility. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis is unnecessary and not a recommended practice.
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