Nursing Elites

1. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment, and how do you recognize signs of respiratory distress?

• A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
• B. Palpation, Inspection, Observation, Auscultation
• C. Percussion, Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation
• D. Inspection, Percussion, Auscultation, Palpation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment should start with inspection (observing the breathing pattern), followed by palpation (feeling for abnormalities like crepitus), percussion (evaluating for dullness or hyperresonance), and auscultation (listening to lung sounds). This systematic approach helps to identify signs of respiratory distress, such as abnormal breath sounds, increased respiratory rate, use of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the standard order and sequence of a focused respiratory assessment.

2. A client diagnosed with dementia wanders the halls of the locked nursing unit during the day. To ensure the client's safety while walking in the halls, the nurse should do which of the following?

• A. Administer PRN haloperidol (Haldol) to decrease the need to walk
• B. Assess the client's gait for steadiness
• C. Restrain the client in a geriatric chair
• D. Administer PRN lorazepam (Ativan) to provide sedation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's gait for steadiness is the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of a client with dementia while walking. This allows the nurse to identify any issues that may increase the risk of falls or accidents. Administering PRN haloperidol or lorazepam is not indicated as the first-line approach in managing wandering behavior and can have adverse effects like increased risk of falls, confusion, or oversedation. Restraint use should be avoided whenever possible, as it can lead to physical and psychological harm to the client.

3. A client is concerned about extreme fatigue after an acute myocardial infarction. What is the best strategy the nurse can suggest to promote independence in self-care?

• A. Encourage the client to rest and let the healthcare team take over self-care tasks
• B. Instruct the client to gradually resume self-care tasks, with rest periods
• C. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks for the client
• D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best strategy to promote independence in self-care for a client concerned about extreme fatigue after an acute myocardial infarction is to instruct the client to gradually resume self-care tasks, with rest periods. This approach allows the client to regain independence without overexerting. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to rest completely and letting the healthcare team take over self-care tasks may hinder independence. Choice C is incorrect as assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks does not promote the client's independence. Choice D is not the best option as the primary focus should be on empowering the client to perform self-care tasks independently.

4. A nurse is caring for a client post-op with a chest tube. What should the nurse check for regularly?

• A. Ensure the chest tube is periodically clamped
• B. Check for air leaks in the tubing
• C. Keep the client in a prone position for chest drainage
• D. Administer diuretics to prevent fluid buildup

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks in the tubing. Air leaks can compromise the function of the chest tube, leading to inadequate drainage and potentially causing complications for the client. Clamping the chest tube periodically is incorrect as it could lead to a buildup of fluid or air in the pleural space. Keeping the client in a prone position is not necessary for chest drainage, as the positioning may vary depending on the specific situation. Administering diuretics may not be directly related to monitoring the chest tube for proper function and is not a routine intervention for chest tube management post-op.

5. A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old woman with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The physician orders total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which of the following is the BEST indication that the patient's nutritional status has improved after 4 days?

• A. The patient eats most of the food served to her
• B. The patient has gained 1 pound since admission
• C. The patient's albumin level is 4.0mg/dL
• D. The patient's hemoglobin is 8.5g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An improved albumin level is the best indicator of improved nutritional status after TPN. Albumin is a key protein that reflects the body's overall nutritional status and is commonly used to assess nutritional health. Choices A, B, and D are not as reliable indicators of improved nutritional status. Choice A may not accurately reflect nutritional improvement as it could be influenced by factors other than nutrition. Choice B may indicate fluid retention or loss rather than true nutritional improvement. Choice D, hemoglobin level, is more related to anemia and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, rather than nutritional status.

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