Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?

• A. Continue the magnesium sulfate infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the magnesium sulfate infusion by one-half.
• C. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately.
• D. Administer calcium gluconate immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately in a client with preeclampsia exhibiting diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, and low urinary output, which indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. This action is crucial to prevent further complications and adverse effects on the client.

2. Which regimen is most effective for treating H. pylori infection?

• A. Metronidazole, bismuth subsalicylate, amoxicillin for 14 days
• B. Clarithromycin and omeprazole for 14 days
• C. Metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days
• D. Metronidazole, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 7 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regimen C, which consists of metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days, is recommended by the FDA as an effective treatment for H. pylori infection. This regimen has been shown to have a high eradication rate and is a standard recommendation in clinical practice guidelines for the management of H. pylori-related conditions.

3. What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. One of the potential side effects of spironolactone therapy is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, making it crucial for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels) are not typically associated with spironolactone use in patients with chronic heart failure.

4. Which signs or symptoms are characteristic of an adult client diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome?

• A. Husky voice and complaints of hoarseness.
• B. Warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin.
• C. Visible swelling of the neck, with no pain.
• D. Central-type obesity, with thin extremities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cushing's syndrome is characterized by central-type obesity with thin extremities, often referred to as 'truncal obesity.' This pattern of weight distribution is a key feature of Cushing's syndrome due to excessive cortisol levels, leading to fat accumulation in the face, neck, and abdomen, while the extremities remain relatively thin. The other options listed, such as husky voice, hoarseness, warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin, and visible swelling of the neck, are not typical findings associated with Cushing's syndrome.

5. What is the primary goal of care for a client experiencing esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis?

• A. Preventing infection
• B. Controlling bleeding
• C. Reducing portal hypertension
• D. Maintaining nutritional status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of care for a client with esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis is to control bleeding. Esophageal varices are fragile, enlarged veins in the esophagus that can rupture and lead to life-threatening bleeding. Controlling bleeding is crucial to prevent severe complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary goal in this case. Reducing portal hypertension (Choice C) is a long-term goal that may help prevent variceal bleeding but is not the immediate priority. Maintaining nutritional status (Choice D) is essential for overall health but is secondary to controlling bleeding in this critical situation.

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