ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?
- A. Continue the magnesium sulfate infusion as prescribed.
- B. Decrease the magnesium sulfate infusion by one-half.
- C. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately.
- D. Administer calcium gluconate immediately.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately in a client with preeclampsia exhibiting diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, and low urinary output, which indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. This action is crucial to prevent further complications and adverse effects on the client.
2. A client with a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- B. Take the medication 30 minutes before meals.
- C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with myasthenia gravis prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon) is to take the medication 30 minutes before meals. This timing is crucial as it helps improve muscle strength for eating and swallowing. By taking the medication before meals, the client can experience enhanced muscle function during mealtime, which is especially important for managing the symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication with food may decrease its effectiveness, avoiding dairy products is not necessary, and taking the medication at bedtime does not coincide with the optimal timing for enhancing muscle function during meals.
3. In a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, what laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?
- A. Serum creatinine
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in patients with chronic kidney disease who often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Monitoring the hemoglobin level is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy as an increase in hemoglobin indicates improved red blood cell production and better management of anemia in these patients. Serum creatinine, white blood cell count, and serum potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in CKD patients but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for managing anemia.
4. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Report any persistent cough to your healthcare provider.
- C. Take the medication with a full meal.
- D. Avoid grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide the client taking enalapril (Vasotec) is to report any persistent cough to their healthcare provider. Enalapril can cause a side effect of a persistent cough, and it is essential for the healthcare provider to be notified if this occurs to evaluate the need for a medication adjustment or change. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium-rich foods is not specifically related to enalapril use; there is no requirement to take enalapril with a full meal, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for medications metabolized by the CYP3A4 enzyme, not typically for enalapril.
5. Which assessment finding indicates a client's readiness to leave the nursing unit for a bronchoscopy?
- A. Client denies allergies to contrast media.
- B. Skin prep to insertion site completed.
- C. On-call sedation administered.
- D. Oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering on-call sedation is crucial before a bronchoscopy to ensure the client is comfortable and adequately prepared for the procedure. Sedation helps reduce anxiety, discomfort, and ensures the client remains still during the bronchoscopy, enabling the healthcare provider to perform the procedure effectively.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access