Nursing Elites

1. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea improving with fasting, and a history of iron deficiency anemia are characteristic of celiac disease. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten consumption, leading to damage in the small intestine. The improvement with fasting may be due to the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome, lactose intolerance, and Crohn's disease do not typically present with improvement of symptoms with fasting or have a clear association with iron deficiency anemia.

2. What should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of enoxaparin in a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The international normalized ratio (INR) is the appropriate parameter to monitor the effectiveness of enoxaparin in preventing clot formation in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). INR reflects the clotting ability of the blood and is commonly used to assess the therapeutic range of anticoagulant medications, such as enoxaparin, which is crucial in managing and preventing thrombotic events like DVT.

3. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Azotemia
• C. Falls
• D. Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.

4. The healthcare provider is planning care for a non-potty-trained child with nephrotic syndrome. Which intervention provides the best means of determining fluid retention?

• A. Weigh the child daily.
• B. Observe the lower extremities for pitting edema.
• C. Measure the child's abdominal girth weekly.
• D. Weigh the child's wet diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weighing is the most accurate method to monitor fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome. Changes in weight can indicate fluid retention or loss, which is crucial in managing nephrotic syndrome. Observing for pitting edema and measuring abdominal girth are also important assessments, but daily weighing provides more immediate and precise information about fluid status.

5. What is the most likely diagnosis in a 30-year-old woman with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with elevated white blood cell count and bilirubin levels?

• A. Acute hepatitis
• B. Acute cholecystitis
• C. Acute cholangitis
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of right upper quadrant pain, fever, jaundice, elevated white blood cell count, and bilirubin levels is classic for acute cholangitis, which is an infection of the bile ducts. Acute hepatitis typically presents with other liver function abnormalities, while acute cholecystitis is characterized by gallbladder inflammation. Pancreatic cancer would not typically present with these specific symptoms and lab findings.

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