ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Dry mouth.
- C. Muscle rigidity.
- D. Drowsiness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity is a crucial finding to report immediately as it can indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. NMS is characterized by muscle rigidity, high fever, autonomic dysfunction, and altered mental status. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications or death.
2. A 60-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hepatitis C
- B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- C. Hemochromatosis
- D. Wilson's disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, jaundice, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels are classic features of primary biliary cirrhosis, an autoimmune liver disease. Hepatitis C typically presents with different symptoms and findings, such as specific viral markers. Hemochromatosis and Wilson's disease involve iron overload and copper accumulation, respectively, leading to distinct clinical and laboratory findings, which do not match the presentation described in this case.
3. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer morphine sulfate.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Initiate continuous ECG monitoring.
- D. Prepare the client for intubation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion, ease breathing, and enhance oxygenation by reducing venous return and decreasing preload on the heart. It is crucial to address the client's respiratory distress promptly before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice A) may be appropriate later to relieve anxiety and reduce the work of breathing, but positioning is the priority. Continuous ECG monitoring (choice C) and preparing for intubation (choice D) are important but secondary to addressing the respiratory distress and optimizing oxygenation.
4. A client reports recent exposure to hepatitis A. What is a common mode of transmission for this virus?
- A. Blood transfusion
- B. Fecal-oral route
- C. Needle sharing
- D. Sexual contact
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hepatitis A is commonly transmitted through the fecal-oral route, often via ingestion of contaminated food or water. This mode of transmission is why proper hygiene, sanitation, and vaccination are essential in preventing the spread of hepatitis A.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to improve absorption.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Take the medication at the same time each day.
- D. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching regarding dabigatran (Pradaxa) is to take the medication at the same time each day. This ensures a consistent blood level and effectiveness of the medication, which is crucial in managing atrial fibrillation and preventing complications. It helps maintain a steady therapeutic effect and reduces the risk of erratic drug levels in the body.
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