Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is planning care for a non-potty-trained child with nephrotic syndrome. Which intervention provides the best means of determining fluid retention?

• A. Weigh the child daily.
• B. Observe the lower extremities for pitting edema.
• C. Measure the child's abdominal girth weekly.
• D. Weigh the child's wet diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weighing is the most accurate method to monitor fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome. Changes in weight can indicate fluid retention or loss, which is crucial in managing nephrotic syndrome. Observing for pitting edema and measuring abdominal girth are also important assessments, but daily weighing provides more immediate and precise information about fluid status.

2. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increase cardiac output
• B. Reduce fluid retention
• C. Decrease heart rate
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.

3. A client with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is at risk for which of the following conditions?

• A. Liver cirrhosis
• B. Renal failure
• C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
• D. Peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to liver cirrhosis due to long-term liver damage. Alcohol consumption over time can cause inflammation and scarring of the liver, eventually leading to cirrhosis. This condition can severely impact liver function and may progress to liver failure if not addressed.

4. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. No need for regular INR monitoring
• B. Lower risk of bleeding
• C. Fewer dietary restrictions
• D. Longer half-life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

5. In which situation is it most important for the registered nurse (RN) working on a medical unit to provide direct supervision?

• A. A graduate nurse needs to access a client's implanted port to start an infusion of Ringer's Lactate.
• B. A postpartum nurse pulled to the unit needs to start a transfusion of packed red blood cells.
• C. A practical nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider with a lumbar puncture at the bedside.
• D. An unlicensed assistive personnel is preparing to weigh an obese bedfast client using a bed scale.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Direct supervision is essential when a complex task, such as accessing an implanted port, is being performed by a less experienced healthcare provider, in this case, a graduate nurse. This oversight ensures patient safety and proper execution of the procedure, especially when it is the nurse's first time performing such a task.

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