Nursing Elites

1. When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?

• A. Two staff members are overheard talking about a cure for AIDS outside a client's room.
• B. A hospital transporter is reading a client's history and physical while waiting for an elevator.
• C. A UAP tells a client, 'It's hard to quit drinking but Alcoholics Anonymous helped me.'
• D. Two visitors are discussing a hospitalized client's history of drug abuse in the visitor's lounge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The hospital transporter reading a client's history and physical without a legitimate need violates patient confidentiality. This behavior requires immediate intervention to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality rights.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

• A. Use this medication only during acute exacerbations.
• B. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching for a client prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva) is to rinse the mouth after using the inhaler. Rinsing the mouth helps prevent oral thrush, a common side effect of inhaled medications. This action reduces the risk of developing oral fungal infections, promoting better oral health for the client.

3. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

• A. Pain during coughing.
• B. Diminished cough effort.
• C. Thick, dry secretions.
• D. Excessive inflammation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

4. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

5. A patient with severe pain is prescribed morphine sulfate. What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Respiratory depression
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed morphine sulfate, the most critical side effect for the nurse to monitor is respiratory depression. Morphine can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to inadequate ventilation and potentially life-threatening consequences. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status closely is essential to promptly identify and manage any signs of respiratory depression.

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