Nursing Elites

1. When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?

• A. Two staff members are overheard talking about a cure for AIDS outside a client's room.
• B. A hospital transporter is reading a client's history and physical while waiting for an elevator.
• C. A UAP tells a client, 'It's hard to quit drinking but Alcoholics Anonymous helped me.'
• D. Two visitors are discussing a hospitalized client's history of drug abuse in the visitor's lounge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The hospital transporter reading a client's history and physical without a legitimate need violates patient confidentiality. This behavior requires immediate intervention to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality rights.

2. What should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of enoxaparin in a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The international normalized ratio (INR) is the appropriate parameter to monitor the effectiveness of enoxaparin in preventing clot formation in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). INR reflects the clotting ability of the blood and is commonly used to assess the therapeutic range of anticoagulant medications, such as enoxaparin, which is crucial in managing and preventing thrombotic events like DVT.

3. When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?

• A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
• B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
• C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
• D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Surgical repair of hypospadias is recommended to be performed before the child is potty-trained to prevent complications. Early correction helps in achieving better outcomes and reduces the risk of issues related to urination and development of the genitalia.

4. Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?

• A. An adult who had a colon resection yesterday and has an IV.
• B. An older adult who has a fever of unknown origin.
• C. A woman who had an acute brain attack (stroke, CVA) 6 hours ago.
• D. A teenager with a femoral fracture who is in traction.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The OB nurse is most experienced in postoperative care, making the client who had a recent colon resection the most suitable assignment. This client would require care that aligns closely with the expertise and skills of the OB nurse, ensuring optimal patient outcomes and effective utilization of nursing resources.

5. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.

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