a 60 year old man presents with fatigue weight gain and constipation laboratory tests reveal low tsh and high free t4 levels what is the most likely d
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1. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal low TSH and high free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of low TSH and high free T4 levels is characteristic of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is associated with symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and diarrhea, contrasting with the typical presentation of hypothyroidism. Therefore, in this case, the most likely diagnosis is hyperthyroidism.

2. A client's health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohn disease, rather than ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the client's signs and symptoms?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of inflammatory bowel disease, the absence of blood in stool is more indicative of Crohn disease. Crohn disease typically presents with non-bloody stools, while ulcerative colitis often involves bloody stools due to continuous mucosal inflammation confined to the colon and rectum.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.

4. While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately in a client with preeclampsia exhibiting diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, and low urinary output, which indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. This action is crucial to prevent further complications and adverse effects on the client.

5. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

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