Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal low TSH and high free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Thyroiditis
• D. Thyroid cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of low TSH and high free T4 levels is characteristic of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is associated with symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and diarrhea, contrasting with the typical presentation of hypothyroidism. Therefore, in this case, the most likely diagnosis is hyperthyroidism.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid green leafy vegetables.
• B. Take aspirin for headaches.
• C. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on warfarin therapy, especially with a history of DVT, is to use a soft-bristled toothbrush. This is crucial to prevent gum bleeding, which is a risk due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness, so they should be consumed consistently to maintain a balance. Aspirin is not recommended for headaches in clients on warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin therapy.

3. A client's health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohn disease, rather than ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the client's signs and symptoms?

• A. A pattern of distinct exacerbations and remissions
• B. Severe diarrhea
• C. An absence of blood in stool
• D. Involvement of the rectal mucosa

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of inflammatory bowel disease, the absence of blood in stool is more indicative of Crohn disease. Crohn disease typically presents with non-bloody stools, while ulcerative colitis often involves bloody stools due to continuous mucosal inflammation confined to the colon and rectum.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication as needed for pain relief.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is important for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication in treating peptic ulcer disease. Choice A ('Take the medication with food') is incorrect because omeprazole should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect as it does not align with the optimal timing for omeprazole administration. Choice D ('Take the medication as needed for pain relief') is incorrect because omeprazole is not typically used for immediate pain relief but rather for long-term management of peptic ulcer disease.

5. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

• A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
• B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
• C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
• D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

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